Tag: Online Test

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  1. Auditor shall be punished with imprisonment for a maximum period of ……… under Section 539 for falsification in the books of accounts.
    (A) 3 years
    (B) 5 years
    (C) 7 years
    (D) 9 years
    Ans : (C)

    92. “Auditor is not an insurer.” In which of the following cases, the decision has been given ?
    (A) The Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. (1986)
    (B) London & General Bank (1895)
    (C) Allen Craig & Co. Ltd. (1934)
    (D) Irish Woollen Co. Ltd.
    Ans : (B)

    93. The Section 80A of the Companies’ Act is related with the redemption of—
    (A) Debentures
    (B) Redeemable preference shares
    (C) Irredeemable preference shares
    (D) None of the above
    Ans : (C)

    94. Company Auditor is responsible—
    (A) For directors
    (B) For shareholders
    (C) For public
    (D) For creditors
    Ans : (B)

    95. In Balance Sheet, Audit Accounts are audited—
    (A) Monthly
    (B) Bi-monthly
    (C) Annually or half yearly
    (D) Quarterly
    Ans : (C)

    96. Audit adopted by banking company is—
    (A) Continuous Audit
    (B) Periodical Audit
    (C) Internal Audit
    (D) Balance Sheet Audit
    Ans : (A)

    97. Which of the following have lien of Company Auditor ?
    (A) Books of Accounts of the Company
    (B) Vouchers of the Company
    (C) Auditor’s working paper
    (D) All of the above
    Ans : (C)

    98. To appoint new auditor in place of retiring auditor, to adopt the procedure, which section of Companies’ Act, 1956 is applicable ?
    (A) 223
    (B) 224
    (C) 225
    (D) 226
    Ans : (B)

    99. “A company has a separate legal existence from its members.” This principle was first laid down in case of—
    (A) Saloman Vs. Saloman & Co. Ltd. (1897)
    (B) Daimler Co. Ltd. Vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (1916)
    (C) State of U. P. Vs. Renu Sagar Power Co. (1991)
    (D) Santunu Roy Vs. Union of India (1989)
    Ans : (A)

    100. According to ownership, Government Company means ……… share.
    (A) Whose paid-up share capital’s 48%, shares are owned by Government
    (B) Whose paid-up share capital’s 49% shares are owned by Government
    (C) Whose paid-up share capital’s 50% shares are owned by Government
    (D) Whose paid-up share capital’s 51% shares are owned by Government
    Ans : (D)

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61. Current Ratio is 3•75, Acid Test Ratio is 1•25 Stock Rs. 3,75,000, calculate working capital.
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 4,12,500
(D) Rs. 4,25,000
Ans : (C)

62. From the information given below, calculate Debt service coverage Ratio—
Net profit after interest and Tax Rs. 40,000, Depreciation Rs. 5,000, Rate of Income Tax 50%, 10% Mortgage Debentures Rs. 60,000. Fixed Interest Charges Rs. 6,000, Debenture Redemption Fund Appropriation of Outstanding Debentures 10%.
(A) 4•06 times
(B) 5•06 times
(C) 6•06 times
(D) 7•06 times
Ans : (A)

63. Share premium account can be used for—
(A) Paying tax liability
(B) Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
(C) Paying Dividend on shares
(D) Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Ans : (B)

64. Ploughing-back of profits means—
(A) Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
(B) Non-declaration of dividend in any year
(C) Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
(D) Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Ans : (D)

65. As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be—
(A) Added to paid up capital
(B) Deducted from called up capital
(C) Added to capital reserve
(D) Shown as a revenue reserve
Ans : (B)

66. A company invited application for subscription of 5,000 shares. The application were received for 6,000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis. If X has applied for 180 shares how many shares would be allotted to him ?
(A) 180 shares
(B) 200 shares
(C) 150 shares
(D) 175 shares
Ans : (C)

67. Consider the following information pertaining to K Ltd. on September 4, 2005, the company issued 12,000 7% debentures having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2•5%. On September 12, the company issued 25,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend @ 6% p.a. thereon. Bank balance on August 31, 2005 was Rs. 30,00,000. After effecting the above transaction, the Bank Balance as on September 30, 2005 will be—
(A) Rs. 35,15,000
(B) Rs. 33,80,000
(C) Rs. 33,45,000
(D) Rs. 35,05,000
Ans : (A)

68. The balance appearing in the books of a company at the end of year were CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security Premium Rs. 5,000, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20,000, P & L A/c (Dr) Rs. 10,000. Maximum amount available for distribution of Bonus Share will be—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 55,000
(C) Rs. 45,000
(D) Rs. 57,000
Ans : (B)

69. R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by—
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 5,00,000
(C) Rs. 3,20,000
(D) Rs. 4,80,000
Ans : (A)

70. Depletion method of depreciation is used in case of—
(A) Cattle, Loose Tools, etc.
(B) Mines, Quarries, etc.
(C) Machinery, Building, etc.
(D) Books
Ans : (B)

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BSNL Recruitment 2016 – 2017, 2510 Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Posts, Apply Online, Notification Details, Call Letter, Admit Card, Result are available at www.bsnl.co.in

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) invites the Application Form from eligible candidates for the recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Posts, further details are given below.

Recruitment for Graduate Engineer to the post of Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) in BSNL from Open Market through valid GATE Score – 2017

Advertisement No. 12-2/2016-Rectt

Name of Organization: Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL Recruitment 2016 – 2017)

Total Number of Vacancies: 2510 Posts

Name of Posts:
Junior Telecom Officer (JTO): 2510 Posts

Scale of Pay: Rs. 16400-40500

Age Limit: 18 to 30 Years (Relaxation in age for SC/ST/OBC candidates as per Govt guidelines)

Educational Qualification and Experience Details: Candidate must have BE / B.Tech or equivalent in Telecom / Electronics / Radio / Computer / Electrical / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering or M.Sc (Electronics) / M.Sc (Computer Science) are required to appear GATE exam 2017, opting one paper from selected four disciplines of GATE paper codes i.e. CS & IT/ EC/EE/ & IN

Application Fee: Rs.1000/- for OBC Category (Rs.500/- for SC/ST)

How to Apply: All eligible and interested candidates are required to apply http://www.externalexam.bsnl.co.in website online form from 01-01-2017 to 31-01-2017

Important date:

Last Date of GATE 2017:  04/10/2016

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UPPCL Recruitment 2017 – Group C Office-Assistant/Steno 2585 Posts Exam

80. Which of the following have caused the growth of cooperative federalism in India ?
1. Union-State collaboration in economic matters
2. Union-State legislative relations
3. Compulsion of development finance
4. Dynamics of electoral politics
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Content — Schedule in the Constitution of India
(A) Languages — Eighth Schedule
(B) The forms of oaths or affirmations — Second Schedule
(C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States — Fourth Schedule
(D) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection — Tenth Schedule
Ans : (B)

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Taxes belonging to the Union exclusively
(b) Taxes belonging to the State exclusively
(c) Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States
(d) Duties levied as well as collected by the Union but assigned to the State
List-II
1. Sales tax
2. Customs
3. Excise duties on medicinal preparation
4. Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Articles 64 and 89(1) of the Constitution of India provide that the Vice-President of India shall be Ex-officio
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
2. There is no such office as that of the Vice-President of India in other parliamentary systems of Governments in Commonwealth countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

84. Consider the following statements—
1. Interest aggregation is the activity in which the political demands of individuals and groups are combined
into policy programmes.
2. Large nations usually develop more specialized organisations for the specific purpose of aggregating interests and resources behind a policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

85. Which one of the following judgements stated that secularism and federalism are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(B) S. R. Bommai Case
(C) Indira Sawhney Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Ans : (A)

86. Consider the following statements—
1. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the chairman and members of statutory bodies
at his discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

87. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House ?
(A) Article 84
(B) Article 85
(C) Article 87
(D) Article 88
Ans : (D)

88. Which one of the following is not associated with the duties of the Prime Minister ?
(A) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(B) To recommend to the President about the decision that a particular Bill may be certified as Money Bill
(C) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislations as the President may call for
(D) If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister which has not been considered by the Council
Ans : (B)

89. The Kamraj Plan proposed—
(A) priority to agriculture over industry
(B) inducting senior leaders to party work
(C) election to all party offices
(D) an overhaul of the Congress Working Committee
Ans : (D)

90. Consider the following statements—
1. The representation of women in the Lok Sabha (up to 14th) has never exceeded 10 per cent of the total
strength.
2. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

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KPSC Recruitment 2017 – 1254 Vacancy for Geologist, Assistant Engineers Exam

71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
State — No. of Members in the Rajya Sabha
(A) Maharashtra — 19
(B) Tamil Nadu — 18
(C) Bihar — 18
(D) West Bengal — 16
Ans : (C)

72. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body ?
(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(B) National Commission for Minorities
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (A)

73. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ?
1. By birth
2. By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalization
5. By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 3, 4 and 4 only
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51A of the Constitution ?
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 4 and 5
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following are considered as basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
1. Republican and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes give below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)

76. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development
plan, as recommended by such a Committee ?
(A) The Planning Commission
(B) The Finance Minister, Government of India
(C) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
(D) The Government of the State
Ans : (D)

77. Consider the following statements—
The Sarkaria Commission recommended :
1. the overlapping membership between Planning Commission and Finance Commission
2. that experts with established reputation for professional integrity be appointed to the Planning Commission
3. that centrally sponsored schemes should be kept to the minimum
4. that States should not be involved in the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

78. Under which of the following regimes was the Inter-State Council (ISC) set up ?
(A) Congress Government in 1975
(B) Janata Government in 1978
(C) Janata Dal led Government in 1990
(D) United Front Government in 1996
Ans : (C)

79. Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create—
(A) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(B) 16 States and 5 Union Territories
(C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(D) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans : (C)

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Water Resources Department Maharashtra Latest Jobs 398 Vacancy Exam

61. In the US House of Representatives, the second reading of a Bill is undertaken in which one of the following Committees ?
(A) Select Committee
(B) Standing Committee
(C) Conference Committee
(D) Committee of the Whole House
Ans : (B)

62. When the Senate of the United States sits for a trial for impeachment of the US President, the House is presided over by the—
(A) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) President of the House
(C) Vice-President of the United States
(D) Senator representing the largest province of the United States
Ans : (A)

63. In several States of the US, the Jim Crow Legislation was responsible for—
(A) segregation of different communities
(B) reparations for previously segregated communities
(C) common schools for blacks and whites
(D) ban of civil rights movement
Ans : (C)

64. The final outcome of the French presidential election is on the completion of (run of election) second ballot among—
(A) all the candidates
(B) top two candidates
(C) top three candidates
(D) top four candidates
Ans : (B)

65. Consider the following statements—
The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless :
1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a 7 days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1
4th of the total number of members of that House
2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2 3rd of the total membership of that House
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

66. During the cultural revolution in China, public security organs known as workers provost corps were created for which of the following ?
1. Dealing with counter-revolutionary activities
2. Keeping surveillance over the activities of the Red Guard
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

67. The National Assembly of South Africa, by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of at least two-thirds of its members, can remove the President from the office on which of the following grounds ?
1. Serious violation of the Constitution or the Law
2. Serious misconduct
3. Moral corruption
4. Inability to perform the functions of the office
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following are included in the Right to Privacy under the Constitution of South Africa ?
Right not to have :
1. person or home searched
2. property searched
3. possession seized
4. privacy of their communication infringed
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (D)

69. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions prepared the groundwork for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed classes in India ?
(A) Southborough Committee
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Nehru Committee
(D) Lothian Committee
Ans : (B)

70. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha—
1. The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1919, when in pursuance to the Government of India Act, 1919, a second chamber known as the Council of States was created.
2. The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest that Parliament may make laws with respect to a matter in the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

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Uttar Pradesh Police Recruitment 2017-Apply 3789 Jail Warder & Fireman Exam

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of ‘judicial review’, which means the power to—
(A) review the judgements of State High Courts
(B) review the functioning of the Council of Ministers
(C) advise the President of India
(D) decide the Constitutionality of an Act (or part thereof) passed by the Legislature
Ans : (D)

52. Consider the following statements—
The Supreme Court judgement in S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to mean that the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or the Chief Minister
1. at his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister in the Assembly.
2. when the Legislative Assembly has expressed its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.
3. when a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the Assembly.
4. when a censure motion against the Council of Minister has been rejected in the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following best perform the function of interest articulation in a political system ?
1. Trade unions and ethnic associations
2. Organizations of businessmen and civic groups
3. Judiciary and law-making institutions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 only
Ans : (C)

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach and Theory)
(a) Structural-Functional approach
(b) Communication theory
(c) General System theory
(d) Rational Choice
List-II (Political Scientist associated with)
1. Davi Easton
2. Karl Deutsch
3. Antony Downs
4. Gabriel Almond
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (D)

55. According to Gabriel Almond, which of the following are the basic characteristics of a system ?
1. Comprehensiveness and interdependence
2. Interdependence and existence of boundaries
3. Existence of boundaries and allocation of values
4. Allocation of values and goal attainment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following was not identified by Almond as a stage of conversion process of a political system ?
(A) Interest articulation
(B) Interest aggregation
(C) Political recruitment
(D) Rule adjudication
Ans : (D)

57. Consider the following political system—
1. Czech Republic
2. Malaysia
3. South Africa
4. Sri Lanka
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above opting to a sustained competitive electoral democracy ?
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

58. Consider the following statements—
The classification of authoritarian systems made by Almond and Powell includes
1. radical and conservative totalitarian
2. pre-mobilized authoritarian and pre-mobilized democratic
3. conservative and modernizing authoritarian
4. secularized City-States and pyramidal systems
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)

59. Consider the following—
1. Timocracy and oligarchy
2. Democracy and tyranny
3. Republics and autocracy
4. Theocracy and polity
Which of the above are included in Plato’s classification of governments ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Institutions/Units of Government)
(a) Laender
(b) Procuratorates
(c) Privy Council
(d) Commissions de modernization
List-II (Countries associated)
1. France
2. China
3. Great Britain
4. German Federal Republic
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (D)

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ILBS Recruitment 2016 Online Application Form 488 Posts Exam

41. Consider the following statements—
The New Social Movements
1. do not seek ‘total’ change
2. are not class-based
3. do not believe in direct action
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

42. Consider the following International Women’s Conferences—
1. Nairobi
2. Mexico
3. Copenhagen
4. Beijing
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above Conference ?
(A) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(B) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(D) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

43. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with the Trade Union Movement in India ?
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) K. R. Narayanan
(D) Zakir Hussain
Ans : (A)

44. Which one of the following political theorists finds the concept of ‘imagined community’ inadequate to describe nationalism in post-colonial societies ?
(A) Partha Chatterjee
(B) V. R. Mehta
(C) Hans Cohn
(D) Ernest Gellner
Ans : (A)

45. Consider the following events—
1. OPEC’s Oil Embargo
2. Accession of UK, Ireland and Denmark to the European Economic Community (EEC)
3. Demand for a New International Economic Order by developing countries in the General Assembly of the United Nations
4. Suez Crisis
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Ans : (C)

46. The key to Gramsci’s analysis of the failure of socialist revolution to take off in the West is the concept of—
(A) ideology
(B) intellectuals
(C) hegemony
(D) civil society
Ans : (C)

47. The zero-sum game as employed by the supporters of the game theory assumes that—
(A) the loss of one player is the gain of the other
(B) the loss of one player is the loss of the other as well
(C) the gain or the loss of one player has nothing to do with the gain or the loss of the other
(D) the gain of one player is the gain of the other player
Ans : (A)

48. Consider the following developments—
1. Outsourcing of services
2. Shrinking of geographical distance
3. Rise of ethnic identity
4. Emergence of regional associations
Which of the above developments are associated with globalization ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

49. The old institutional approach to the study of political and government systems lays emphasis on—
(A) they study of formal aspects of government and politics
(B) finding out principles underlying all political activites
(C) the search for regularities and for making generalizations
(D) transcendental ideals embodying different views of ‘what ought to be’
Ans : (A)

50. Which of the following statements regarding behavioural approach are correct ?
1. It is interdisciplinary in nature.
2. It is more descriptive and less empirical.
3. It is value neutral.
4. It puts emphasis on qualitative judgement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

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31. Consider the following—
1. Decentralization
2. Labour-intensive industry
3. Promotion of Indian languages vis-a-vis English
4. Opposition to caste system
Which of the above were the central tenets of Lohia-inspired socialism in India ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

32. Consider the following statements—
1. Truth is a subjective quality, available only to a few gifted people, whose will or spirit or personality is greater than that of the masses.
2. Non-violence is the law of our species as violence is the law of brute.
Which political ideologies are reflected in the statements 1 and 2 above respectively ?
(A) Marxism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(B) Syndicalism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(C) Fascism in 1 and Liberalism in 2
(D) Fascism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
Ans : (D)

33. Consider the following propositions—
1. Trusteeship implies making use of resources at one’s command for the welfare of all.
2. Nayee (Nai) Taleem (Basic Education) is integration of learning with work.
3. Satyagraha is holding on to truth even at one’s cost.
With which of the above propositions did Gandhi disagree ?
(A) None
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 only
(D) 3
Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas —C. F. Andrews
(B) The Gandhian Way —J. B. Kriplani
(C) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism —Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) Gandhi’s Political Philosophy —B. R. Nanda
Ans : (D)

35. Consider the following countries—
1. Sri Lanka
2. Malaysia
3. Australia
4. Canada
Which of the above countries has/have formally declared itself/themselves as multicultural ?
(A) 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Country)
(a) Egypt
(b) Nigeria
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Syria
List-II (Party)
1. National Democratic Party
2. People’s Democratic Party
3. United National Party
4. Baath Party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

37. Which one of the following was the first country-wide pressure group of the organized Indian working class ?
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Indian Mining Federation
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
Ans : (A)

38. With which one of the following is the expression ‘gift of grace’ associated ?
(A) Legal-rational authority
(B) Traditional authority
(C) Charismatic authority
(D) Autocratic authority
Ans : (C)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Exponent)
(a) Eva Balfour
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) A. G. Frank
(d) Samir Amin
List-II (Theory)
1. Stages of development
2. Centre-periphery theory
3. Environmental theory
4. Development of underdevelopment
5. Sustainable development
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 1 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 5
(C) 5 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 5
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is/are the major theme(s) of New International Economic Order (NIEO) ?
1. Self-reliance
2. Globalization and liberalization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

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21. Consider the following classics of Marxism—
1. The German Ideology (Marx and Engels)
2. The Paris Commune (Marx)
3. The Critique of the Gotha Programme (Marx)
4. State and Revolution (Lenin)
Which of the above are a strong endorsement of direct democracy ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

22. The concept of civil disobedience is not central in the thought of who of the following ?
(A) John Rawls
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Leo Tolstoy
(D) Michel Foucault
Ans : (A)

23. Which one of the following theories considers democracy not as a government of the people but as ‘the iron law of oligarchy’ ?
(A) The Pluralist
(B) The Marxist
(C) The Elitist
(D) The Idealist
Ans : (C)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Theories of Democracy)
(a) Elite theory
(b) Pluralist theory
(c) Radical theory
(d) Neo-Liberal theory
List-II (Champions)
1. C. B. Macpherson
2. Robert Nozick
3. Vilfredo Pareto
4. Robert Dahl
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)

25. Consider the following statements—
Liberal feminists advocate:
1. equality before the law for women
2. same rights for men and women
3. special representation for women in decision-making bodies
4. assault on patriarchy
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

26. The public can private spheres came to be strongly demarcated in which one of the following ideological orientations ?
(A) Fascism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Feminism
(D) Marxism
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following books makes value and meaning crucial determinants of human action ?
(A) Rousseau’s ‘Discourse on the Origin of Inequality
(B) Marx’s ‘On the Jewish Question’
(C) Weber’s ‘Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism’
(D) Paine’s ‘Rights of Man’
Ans : (C)

28. According to Lenin, what are the three sources of Marxism ?
(A) Russian anarchism, French socialism and British economy
(B) German philosophy, British political economy and French socialism
(C) French philosophy, British economy and German socialism
(D) Hegelian dialectics, Blanqui’s socialism and Ricardo’s political economy
Ans : (B)

29. In which one of the following texts is the concept of ‘dialectics’ examined ?
(A) Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism (Lenin)
(B) The Eighteenth Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte (Marx)
(C) Social Reform or Revolution (Luxemburg)
(D) For Marx (Althusser)
Ans : (A)

30. Consider the following concepts—
1. Epistemological break
2. Relative autonomy of the superstructure
3. Economy in the last instance
4. Paradigm shift Althusser is credited with which of the above concepts ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

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11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Natural Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Moral Right
(d) Cultural Right
List-II
1. Immanuel Kant
2. Jeremy Bentham
3. Will Kymlicka
4. H. L. A. Hart
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (A)

12. Which one of the following political philosophers is an advocate of positive liberty ?
(A) Isaiah Berlin
(B) Iris Marion Young
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) T. H. Green
Ans : (D)

13. Consider the following statements—
In his theory of justice, John Rawls :
1. reconciles a liberal conception of political obligation with a redistributive conception of social justice.
2. affirms the utilitarian principle for determining what is goot and desirable.
3. uses the instrument of the social contract to ensure fairness.
4. maintains that the concern for redistribution trumps individuals liberty.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

14. The New Right rejects the principle of social justice because it—
1. violates liberty
2. is against merit
3. is not conducive to efficiency
4. does not respect different wants and needs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

15. According to Rawls, which of the following sets of social primary goods is likely to be pursued by all human beings ?
(A) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, rights and liberties, and social bases of selfrespect
(B) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, healths and intelligence, and social bases of self-respect
(C) Rights and liberties, income and wealth, health and intelligence, and social bases of selfrespect
(D) Income and wealth, health and imagination, opportunities and powers, and social bases of self-respect
Ans : (A)

16. Public institutions may not cope with the expansion of democratic participation leading to political decay. Which one of the following scholars draws attention to such a consequence ?
(A) Rajni Kothari
(B) Samuel Huntington
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) David Held
Ans : (B)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Idea of Justice)
(a) Treating likes alike
(b) Fairness
(c) Net aggregate satisfaction
(d) Interest of the stronger
List-II (Thinker)
1. Rawls
2. Aristotle
3. Thrasymachus
4. Bentham
5. Nozick
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 5 3
(B) 2 1 3 5
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept of Civil Society)
(a) Civil society as the arena of cultural politics
(b) Civil society as the arena of civic associations
(c) Civil society as the zone between family and State
(d) Civil society as the space for the emergence of public opinion independent of the State and the Church
List-II (Thinker)
1. Hegal
2. de Tocqueville
3. Gramsci
4. Jurgen
5. Habermas
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)

19. Consider the following statements—
1. In the Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individuals as well as the society.
2. The Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle againstColonial Raj in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

20. Who among the following argues that fault lines of civilizations are the breeding grounds of conflict in 21st Century ?
(A) Francis Fukuyama
(B) Samuel Huntington
(C) Henry Kissinger
(D) Sanjay Subramaniam
Ans : (B)

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1. Which one of the following thinkers proposed the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of scientific truth ?
(A) Levi-Strauss
(B) Max Weber
(C) Karl Popper
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (C)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The State comes into existence for the bare needs of life and continue to exist for the sake of good life.
(b) Rights are the conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.
(c) Greatest happiness of the greatest number.
(d) From each according to his ability to each according to his needs.
List-II
1. Harold Laski
2. Bentham
3. Aristotle
4. Marx
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach)
(a) New Institutionalism
(b) Neo-Liberalism
(c) Communitarianism
(d) Behaviouralism
List-II (Scholar)
1. Michael Walzer
2. David Apter
3. Milton Friendman
4. Douglass North
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (A)

4. For Aristotle, the State should be governed by a political statesman having which one of the following virtues ?
(A) Reason
(B) Knowledge
(C) Prudence
(D) Wealth
Ans : (C)

5. Which one of the following is correct with regard to all theorists of social contract ?
(A) Erasing the distinction between law and morality
(B) The principle of separation of powers
(C) Formation of public authority with social consent
(D) Belief in innate rights
Ans : (C)

6. With regard to conservatism, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Society is an achievement, which despite all its imperfections, is preferable to the state of nature.
2. Individuals are a product of historical and social conditions.
3. Customs and values play an important role in defining the identity of the individual.
4. Power should be vested in the office rather than the individuals holding the office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

7. Who among the following has coined the term power elite ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) C. Wright Mills
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. Pareto
Ans : (B)

8. Antonio Gramsci establishes a strong link between which one of the following four sets of concepts ?
(A) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Religion
(B) Ideology—Leadership—War of Manoeuvre—Domination
(C) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Passive Revolution
(D) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Intellectuals
Ans : (D)

9. Which one of the following is suggested by the concept of universal citizenship ?
(A) Identical rights for all persons
(B) Identical rights for all citizens
(C) Common rights for all with some special rights for minorities
(D) Single citizenship in the world
Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to ethnicity and nationalism ?
(A) Both trace common bonds across their members
(B) Both distinguish between we and they
(C) There is unanimity among scholars today that both are imagined relations
(D) While nationalism tends towards Nation-State, ethnicity seeks the recognition of its distinct identity
Ans : (C)

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Mahatma Gandhi Quiz Questions and Answers | Gandhi GK

  1. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was born on—
    (A) October 5, 1896 (B) October 3, 1840
    (C) October 2, 1869 (D) October 10, 1880 (Ans : C)2. At which place was Gandhiji born?
    (A) Porbandar (B) Rajkot
    (C) Wardha (D) Junagadh (Ans : A)

    3. Which of the following plays left a deep impression on Gandhiji?
    (A) Harishchandra (B) Shravana Kumar
    (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Shakuntala (Ans : C)

    4. Who of the following desired to convert Gandhiji to Christianity in South Africa?
    (A) A. W. Baker (B) Mrs. MacDonald
    (C) William Godfrey (D) Spencer Walton (Ans :A)

    5. Who of the following satyagrahis succumbed to jail hardships during the satyagraha movement launched by Gandhiji in South Africa?
    (A) Harbat Singh (B) Villiamma
    (C) Nagappan (D) All of them (Ans :D)

    6. What was Gandhiji’s age when he got married to Kasturbai?
    (A) 19 years (B) 15 years
    (c)12 years (D) 13 years (Ans :D)

    7. About how old was Gandhiji when he reached London to become a barrister?
    (A) 20 years (B) 19 years
    (C) 21 years (D) 18 years (Ans :B)

    8. Devdas was Gandhiji’s
    (A) Only child (B) Second child
    (C) Eldest child (D) Youngest child (Ans :D)

    9. At which place was the first permit office opened on July 1, 1907 for the registration of Indians
    under the Registration Act?
    (A) Pretoria (B) Johhanesburg
    (C) Petersburg (D) Volksrust (Ans :A)

    10. Searle’s Supreme Court judgement which caused great resentment among Indians, leading to mass
    protests, related to—
    (A) Registration of Indians (B) Strike by Indian coal miners
    (C) Invalidation of Indian marriages (D) None of the above (Ans :C)

    11. Gandhiji, the hero of the satyagraha struggle of the Indians in South Africa, landed in Bombay on—
    (A) January 9, 1915 (B) January 26, 1915
    (C) February 10, 1915 (D) February 20, 1915 (Ans :A)

    12. Who advised Gandhiji to remain as an observer and student in the country for a year before taking part in Indian Politics?
    (A) B. G. Tilak (B) G. K. Gokhale
    (C) Anne Besant (D) Rabindranath Tagore (Ans :C)

    13. Identify the place from where Gandhiji started his recruiting campaign for the War on behalf of the British Government.
    (A) Surat (B) Ahmedabad
    (C) Kheda (D) Rajkot (Ans :C)

    14. In which South African unit had most of the India emigrants taken up abode?
    (A) Johannesburg (B) Natal
    (C) Maritzberg (D) Durban (Ans :B)

    15. At which place was Gandhiji arrested for the first time by the British Government for sedition?
    (A) Bombay (B) Pune
    (C) Calcutta (D) Ahmedabad (Ans :D)

    16. When was the Gandhi – Irwin Pact signed?
    (A) March 1, 1932 (B) March 5, 1931
    (C) March 10, 1935 (D) March 7, 1937 (Ans :B)

    17. On being arrested for his “Quit India” programme, where was Gandhiji detained?
    (A) Yeravda Jail (B) Byculla Prison
    (C) Agakhan Palace Jail (D) Ahmedabad Prison (Ans :D)

    18. In connection with the inauguration of the so-called Rowlatt satyagraha, Gandhiji started a Satyagraha Sabha in—
    (A) Ahmedabad (B) Bombay
    (C) Wardha (D) Rajkot (Ans : B)

    19. What is the name of the building which served as Gandhi’s residence in Mumbai from 1917-1934?
    (A) Birla House (B) Bajaj House
    (C) Mani Bhavan (D) Congress House (Ans : C)

    20. The book “Unto This Last” greatly captivated and transformed Gandhiji. So much so that he translated it into Gujarati. Who was its author?
    (A) Ruskin Bond (B) John Ruskin
    (C) Leo Tolstoy (D) Louis Fisher (Ans : B)

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  1. Which of the following Constitutional (Amendment) Acts provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States?
    (A) Fourth (Amendment) Act (B) Seventh (Amendment) Act
    (C) Eleventh (Amendment) Act (D) Twenty Fourth Amendment) Act (Ans : B)57. The basic – structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that–
    (A) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away.
    (B) The Constitution can not be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Art-368
    (C) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the same time it represents real spirit of Constitution
    (D) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they can not be amended (Ans : D)

    58. Who among the following has termed Indian Federalism as “Cooperative Federalism” ?
    (A) K. C. Wheare (B) Morris Jones (C) Granville Austin (D) Jennings (Ans : C)

    59. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct ?
    (A) ‘Exit-Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchiese
    (B) ‘Exit-Poll’ and ‘Opinion-Poll’ are one and the same
    (C) ‘Exit-Poll’ is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted
    (D) ‘Exit-Poll’ is an administrative device made by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation (Ans : A)

    60. Which of the following models of bureaucracy exists in India today?
    (A) Committed bureaucracy (B) Fully politicised bureaucracy
    (C) Semi-politicised bureaucracy (D) Depoliticised bureaucracy (Ans : C)

    61. According to the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, the District collector should be–
    (A) kept out of the Zila Parishad (B) a non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
    (C) a member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote (D) the Chairman of the Zila Parishad (Ans :D)

    62. Which of the following is not a source of revenue for the village panchayats ?
    (A) Tax on agricultural income (B) Tax on property, animals and vehicles
    (C) Voluntary donations (D) Grants from the State Government (Ans : A)

    63. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first (in the order) by–
    (A) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh (B) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
    (C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh (D) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh (Ans : C)

    64. In India, Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendation of–
    (A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India (B) Gorwala Reprot
    (C) Kripalani Committee (D) Santhanam Committee (Ans : D)

    65. Which one of the following High Courts had the Territorial-Jurisdiction over’ Andaman and Nicobar’ Islands?
    (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Calcutta (C) Madras (D) Orissa (Ans : B)

    66. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to–
    (A) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
    (B) prepare the Annual Budget
    (C) advice the President on financial matters
    (D) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments (Ans : A)

    67. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with–
    (A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament (C) President of India (D) National Development Council (Ans : B)

    68. Which of the following statements is / are correct with regard to Indian Audit?
    (A) Indian Audit is primarily a legality audit (B) Indian Audit is governed not by law but by an executive order
    (C) The Audit is mostly limited to the expenditure side only (D) All the three above (Ans : D)

    69. Which one of the following recommended the creation of the office of ‘Lokpal’ ?
    (A) National Police Commission (B) States Reorganization Commission
    (C) Administrative Reform Commission (D) Inter-State Council (Ans : C)

    70. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the–
    (A) U.N. General Assembly only (B) U.N. Security Council only
    (C) U.N. General Assembly and U.N. Security Council both (D) Economic and Social Council (Ans :C)

    71. ‘Optional Clause’ which defines the compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice, originates from which one of the following Articles of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?
    (A) Article – 34 (B) Article – 35 (C) Article – 36 (D) Article – 40 (Ans : C)

    72. The historic Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh in which the two countries agreed to transfer the enclaves to each others sovereignty was concluded in–
    (A) 1972 (B) 1973 (C) 1974 (D) 1975 (Ans : C)

    73. The number of ‘SAARC’ (South Asian Association of Regional Co-operation) countries is–
    (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 (Ans : B)

    74. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble of Constitution of India by–
    (A) 41st Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment
    (C) 44th Amendment (D) 46th Amendment (Ans : B)

    75. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of Education?
    (A) Article 349 (B) Article 350 (C) Article 350-A (D) Article 351 (Ans : C)

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26. How many Nations had signed the Charter of United Nations on 26th June, 1945 ?
(A) 64 (B) 61 (C) 52 (D) 51 (Ans : D)

27. How many women members were there in the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 15 (Ans : D)

28. To whom among the following did Buddha preach his last sermon?
(A) Subhadda (B) Anand (C) Yash (D) Gautami (Ans : A)

29. From which site of prehistoric age, evidence of cremating pet-dog with man has been found?
(A) Koldihawa (B) Panchoh (C) Burzhome (D) Gufkaral (Ans : C)

30. Which of the Indian States had diarchy system of government at the time of Alexander’s invasion?
(A) Patal (B) Fegela (C) Gandaris (D) Siboi (Ans : A)

31. Whose relics are preserved in the Second Stupa at Sanchi ?
(A) Missionaries of Ashokan age (B) Lord Buddha
(C) Sariputra (D) Mahamodglyeyan (Ans : A)

32. Which temple of North India has its Shikhar (spire) in Dravid style?
(A) Bhitargaon (B) Deogarh (C) Sas-Bahu temple (D) Teli temple at Gwalior (Ans : D)

33. The first excavated Indus site after independence of India is–
(A) Ropar (B) Kalibangan (C) Banavali (D) Lothal (Ans : A)

34. Which is the port city of Indus Valley culture?
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Harappa (C) Kalibanga (D) Lothal (Ans : D)

35. How many slokas are present in Rajtarangini of Kalhana ?
(A) Eight thousand (B) Nine thousand (C) Ten thousand (D) Eleven thousand (Ans : A)

36. Which of the following tribes does not belong to the Panchjana of Rigveda ?
(A) Yadu (B) Puru (C) Turvasa (D) Kikat (Ans : D)

37. Which of the following inscriptions mentions Vedic Gods?
(A) Mansehra (B) Shahbajgarhi (C) Boghazkoi (D) Junagarh (Ans : C)

38. King Kharvela of Kalinga belonged to which dynasty ?
(A) Chedi (B) Kadamba (C) Haryanka (D) Kalinga (Ans : A)

39. Which one of the following is the name of the Book written by Magasthnase ?
(A) Deep Vansh (B) Kapur Manjan (C) Geography (D) Indica (Ans : D)

40. Who is regarded as the father of Indian pre-history?
(A) Cunnigham (B) Bruce Froot (C) Marshall (D) William King (Ans : B)

41. Who among the following called himself ‘The Parrot of India’ ?
(A) Malik Muhammad Jaisi (B) Raskhan (C) Amir Khusrau (D) Amir Hasan (Ans : C)

42. Who among the following built the ‘Qutub Minar’ ?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak (B) Iltutmish (C) Firozshah Tughlaq (D) All the above (Ans : D)

43. At which of the following places Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the tricolour in 1930 ?
(A) Allahabad (B) Delhi (C) Lahore (D) Lucknow (Ans : C)

44. Who was the great force behind the foundation of the first Indian Women’s University in Bombay in 1906?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) D. K. Karve (C) S. S. Bangali (D) V. M. Malabari (Ans : B)

45. The largest ocean of the world is–
(A) Arctic Ocean (B) Indian Ocean (C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Pacific Ocean (Ans : D)

46. The largest Mica producing State in India is–
(A) Jharkhand (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan (Ans : A)

47. Which one of the following is the longest river in India?
(A) Godavari (B) Narmada (C) Krishna (D) Yamuna (Ans : A)

48. Which one of the following country has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forests?
(A) China (B) Australia (C) India (D) United Kingdom (Ans : C)

49. Chandra Prabha National Park is located in–
(A) Varanasi (B) Kanpur (C) Jaunpur (D) Saharanpur (Ans : A)

50. Disaster Management Act was enacted in India, in the year–
(A) 2001 (B) 2003 (C) 2005 (D) 2012 (Ans : C)

51. The National Capital Region Planning Board was set up in India in the year–
(A) 1980 (B) 1982 (C) 1985 (D) 1995 (Ans : C)

52. Which of the following tribes belongs to Nilgiri hills ?
(A) Maria (B) Asur (C) Badga (D) Saharia (Ans : C)

53. The Patkai hills separate India from–
(A) China (B) Myanmar (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (Ans : B)

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-
List-I (Industry) 
(a) Sugar (b) Paper (c) Cement (d) Iron & Steel
List-II (Place) 
1. Dalmia Dadari 2. Dhampur 3. Chandra pur 4. Bokaro
Codes : 
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 2 3 4(Ans : B)

55. As per Census 2011 of India, which of the following States has lowest per cent of urban population?
(A) Tripura (B) Sikkim (C) Bihar (D) Himachal Pradesh (Ans : D)

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Bank of Baroda Recruitment 2017 – Apply for 566 Sweeper & Peon Posts Exam

1. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute is located at–
(A) Goa (B) Kochi (C) Vishakhapatnam (D) Puri (Ans : B)

2. The Coromandal Coast is located in the State of–
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Gujarat (Ans : C)

3. Arrange the following events in chronological order, using the codes given below–
1. Abolition of Jazia 2. Abolition of Pilgrimage Tax
3. Construction of Ibadat Khana 4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi’
Codes : 
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2 (Ans : B)

4. Which of the following emperors was known as ‘Shah-i-Bekhabar’?
(A) Humayun (B) Jahangir (C) Bahadurshah-I (D) Farrukhsiyar (Ans : C)

5. Which of the following emperors had the highest number of Hindu generals in the army?
(A) Babar (B) Akbar (C) Jahangir (D) Aurangzeb (Ans : D)

6. ‘Rajm Nama’ is the Persian translation of–
(A) Arthashastra (B) Ramayan (C) Mahabharata (D) Upanishada (Ans : C)

7. Maluk Das was a saint-poet residing at–
(A) Agra (B) Ayodhya (C) Kashi (D) Kara (Ans : D)

8. Which of the following Rajput houses was the first to establish matrimonial relation with emperor Akbar?
(A) Rathore (B) Kachwaha (C) Chauhan (D) Sisodiya (Ans : B)

9. Musical instrument ‘Sitar’ was invented by–
(A) Amir Khusro (B) Ramdas (C) Tansen (D) Haridas (Ans : A)

10. Which Sufi Saint remarked ‘Hanooj Dilli Dur Ast’ (Delhi is still far away) ?
(A) Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Delhi (B) Nizamuddin Aulia
(C) Shaikh Bakhtiyar Kaki (D) Baba Farid (Ans : B)

11. ‘Bijak’ is a collection of the sayings of–
(A) Baba Farid (B) Ramanand (C) Guru Nanak (D) Kabir (Ans : D)

12. Panchayati Raj is a system of–
(A) Local government (B) Local administration
(C) Local self-government (D) Rural local self government (Ans : D)

13. Which one of the following is a member of ‘ASEAN’ ? (Association of South East Asian Nations) formed in 1967?
(A) Thailand (B) Australia (C) New Zealand (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

14. The Indian foreign policy was formulated by–
(A) Mrs. Indira Gandhi (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Morarji Desai (D) Jawaharlal Nehru (Ans : D)

15. After K-2, which of the following is second highest mountain peak in India?
(A) Kamet (B) Nandadevi (C) Kanchenjunga (D) Shudu Thempa (Ans : C)

16. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(States) – (Major Hydel-Power Station) 
(A) Gujarat – Tawa
(B) Rajasthan – Jawhar Sagar
(C) West Bengal – Panchet Hill
(D) Madhya Pradesh – Khopoli (Ans : D)

17. Which one of the following tribes belongs to Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand ?
(A) Itnar (B) Tharu (C) Bhil (D) Munda (Ans : B)

18. Badrinath is located in–
(A) Kumaun Himalaya (B) Central Himalaya (C) Himadri (D) Trans-Himalaya (Ans : A)

19. Who among the following pre-pared a scientific classification of forests?
(A) H. G. Champion (B) K. V. Sundaram (C) B. L. Sukhwal (D) L. D. Stamp (Ans : A)

20. The eastern most place of India is located in the State of–
(A) Mizoram (B) Meghalaya (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Nagaland (Ans : C)

21. ‘Kevti’ Waterfall is located in which of the following districts?
(A) Rewa (B) Rohtas (C) Ranchi (D) Jabalpur (Ans : A)

22. Largest bauxite producing State in India (2014) is–
(A) Jharkhand (B) Rajasthan (C) Odisha (D) Tamil Nadu (Ans : C)

23. The ‘Wage good strategy’ of development was formulated by–
(A) Amartya Sen (B) C. Vakil (C) P. C. Mahalanobis (D) J. Bhagwati (Ans : B)

24. Who among the following represented India in the International Yoga Day Celebrations held in New York on 21st June, 2015 ?
(A) Uma Bharati (B) Sumitra Mahajan (C) Sushma Swaraj (D) Vasundhara Raje (Ans : C)

25. Consider the statements–
Assertion (A) : The State Election Commission is appointed by the State Government.
Reason (R) : It has the responsibility of holding elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below–
Codes : 
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (Ans : D)

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OSSSC Recruitment 2017 Apply for 736 Village Agricultural Workers Exam

The oldest English daily at present in our country is :
(A) Statesman (B) Indian Express
(C) The Hindu (D) Times of India

2. ’Subbing’ relates to :
(A) Editing a news (B) Correction
(C) rewriting (D) All of the above

3. Narrow casting is :
(A) Local Programmes on TV (B) Small Cubicle
(D) Short Headlines (E) News on phone service

4. Brand ambassador for ‘save the girl child campaign’ is :
(A) Sania Mirza (B) Sunita Williams
(C) Rani Mukharjee (D) Aishwarya Rai

5. Under which section of IPC the ‘defamation’ has been defined?
(A) 449 (B) 420
(C) 500 (D) 151

6. A ‘wire service’ is :
(A) A news agency (B) Wire providing live radio programmes
(C) Another name of cable TV network (D) None of the above

7. The puppetry is :
(A) A form of traditional media (B) An art form
(C) performed to tell stories (D) A form of entertainment

8. The only actress to bag the Filmfare Award for the best villain is :
(A) Rekha in ’Khiladiyon Ke Khiladi’ (B) Kajol in ’Gupt ’
(C) Nadira in ‘Dil Apna Preet Parayi (D) None of these

9. Construction of a park by a Corporate is:
(A) Social work (B) Public relation
(C) Advertisement (D) None of these

10. How many sequential frames are there in a two-dimensional animation ?
(A) 22 in a second (B) 24 in a second
(C) 36 in a second (D) 10 in a second

11. Proposed Broadcating bill is supposed to put restrictions on :
(A) Private TV Channels (B) Private Radio Channels
(C) Both (D) None of the above

12. Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) is situated in :
(A) Pune (B) Delhi
(C) Nasik (D) Hyderabad

13. The much-discussed media event ‘wardrobe malfunctioning’ was related to :
(A) A beauty contest (B) Slipping of a model’s outfit during a fashion show
(C) Kissing episode of Rakhi Sawant (D) None of these

14. What is ‘sitcom’?
(A) City combination (B) Situational Comedy
(C) A private TV channel (D) None of these

15. Full form of ‘Fax’ is :
(A) Fast Arriving Xerox (B) Facsimile
(C) First Action Xerox (D) None of these

16. Google is :
(A) A search engine (B) A type of cricket ball
(C) An English newspaper (D) None of these

17. Who raised the issue of pesticides in the bottled soft drinks?
(A) Sunita Narayan (B) Medha Patker
(C) Arundhati Roy (D) Anita Narayan

18. Subhash Chandra is the Chief Executive Officer of :
(A) Zee TV (B) Sony Entertainment
(C) Star Plus (D) Setmax

19. Author of the well-known book ‘A Suitable Boy’ is :
(A) Vikram Seth (B) Pritish Nandi
(C) Salman Rushdie (D) Arundhati Roy

20. The Voluntary organisation that raised the issue of pesticides in the soft drinks was :
(A) Centre for Science and Environment (B) Environment Action Group
(C) Concern for Environment (D) Forum for Science & Environment

21. Quiz master of the popular game-show ‘Kaun Banega Crorepati’ was :
(A) Neil O’ Brien (B) Derek O’ Brien
(C) Siddharth Basu (D) Siddharth Sharma

22. Which chocolate brand had the controversy of worms in the chocolate?
(A) Nestle (B) Cadbury
(C) Parle (D) AMUL

23. Present editor of India Today is :
(A) Aroon Purie (B) Vinod Mehta
(C) Vineet Jain (D) Prabhu Chawla

24. Name of the monthly magazine of the Ministry of Rural Development is :
(A) Kurukshetra (B) Krishi
(C) Kheti (D) Gramin Sandesh

25. Who is the author of the well-known novel ‘Ek Chadar Maili Si :
(A) Rajindar Singh Bedi (B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Ismat Chughtai (D) Sadat Hasan Manto

Answers :
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A)

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Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam – UPJN Recruitment 2017 – 383 Routine Clerk & Steno Vacancies Exam

  1. Which of the following is not a part of India’s Money Market ?
    (A) Bill Markets (B) Call Money Market (C) Banks (D) Indian Gold Council (Ans :D)

    2. Which of the following States introduced a high-tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
    (A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Delhi (D) Karnataka (Ans : D)

    3. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
    (A) Republican (B) Democratic (C) Labour
    (D) American National Congress (Ans : B)

    4. Which of the following State Governments had announced that it would provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries?
    (A) Punjab (B) Karna taka (C) Bihar
    (D) Uttar Pradesh (Ans : C)

    5. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The Exile” ?
    (A) B. G. Verghese (B) Philip Roth (C) Aravind Adiga
    (D) Navtej Saran (Ans : D)

    6. Which of the following is not a fertilizer product ?
    (A) Urea (B) Murate of Potash (C) Di Ammonium Phosphate
    (D) Calcium Carbonate (Ans : D)

    7. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
    (A) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (B) Navodaya Vidyalay (C) Ultra Mega Power Project
    (D) None of ‘these (Ans : D)

    8. The Government of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal?
    (A) Wheat (B) Paddy (C) Sugarcane
    (D) Cotton (Ans : B)

    9. Which of the following services is not provided by the post offices in India?
    (A) Savings Bank Scheme (B) Retailing of Mutual Funds (C) Sale of Stamp Papers (Judicial)
    (D) Issuance of Demand Drafts (Ans : B)

    10. Which of the following diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
    (A) Cholera (B) Tuberculosis (C) AIDS
    (D) Polio (Ans : A)

    11. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The Namesake” ?
    (A) Vikram Seth (B) V. S. Naipaul (C) Arun Bhagat
    (D) Jhumpa Lahiri (Ans : D)

    12. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in–
    (A) Literary work (B) Social service (C) Coaching in sports
    (D) Journalism (Ans : C)

    13. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in–
    (A) Port Blair (B) Hassan (C) Tirupati
    (D) Sriharikota (Ans : D)

    14. Besides USA, India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as “Cooperation Agreement for Peaceful Uses, of Nuclear Energy” ?
    (A) Italy (B) Germany (C) France
    (D) Canada (Ans : C)

    15. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of–
    (A) Badminton (B) Football (C) Hockey
    (D) Golf (Ans : B)

    16. World Ozone Day is observed on–
    (A) 16th September (B) 16th October (C) 16th November
    (D) 26th September (Ans : A)

    17. Which of the following is not a Government-sponsored organisation?
    (A) Small Industries Development Bank of India (B) NABARD
    (C) National Housing Bank (D) ICICI Bank
    (Ans : D)

    18. Who amongst the following is the author of the novel “The White Tiger” ?
    (A) Jhumpa Lahiri (B) Steve Waugh (C) Aravind Adiga
    (D) Paul Krugman (Ans : C)

    19. Which of the following is the correct description of the Capital Market? Capital Market comprises
    (A) Stock Markets and Bond Markets (B) Banks and Insurance Companies
    (C) RBI and Nationalised Banks (D) Stock Markets and Banks
    (Ans : A)

    20. Which of the following organisations has provided a USS 150 million loan to overhaul the Khadi and Village Industry in India?
    (A) World Bank (B) International Monetary Fund (C) Asian Development Bank
    (D) European Union (Ans : C)

    21. Which of the following countries is not the member of IBSA ?
    (A) India (B) Bangladesh (C) South Africa
    (D) Brazil (Ans : B)

    22. Which of the followings countries is not the member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) ?
    (A) Russia (B) USA (C) France
    (D) Iran (Ans : D)

    23. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Lawn Tennis?
    (A) Double Fault (B) Half Nelson (C) Cox
    (D) Crease (Ans : A)

    24. Who amongst the following was the first Prime Minister of Nepal after it had got the status of the democratic republic nation?
    (A) Ram Baran Yadav (B) Subhash Nembang
    (C) G. P. Koirala (D) Pushpa Kamal Dahal (prachanda)
    (Ans : D)

    25. ‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of–
    (A) Cricket (B) Football (C) Lawn Tennis
    (D) Hockey (Ans : D)

    26. Which of the following organisations was specially established to operate in Gramin areas by design itself?
    (A) Commercial Banks (B) Central Financial Institutes (C) Private Banks
    (D) Regional Rural Banks (Ans : D)

    27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book (novel) “Infinite Jest?
    (A) Quentin Bryce (B) Aravind Adiga (C) Paul Newman
    (D) David Foster Wallace (Ans : D)

    28. India has purchased Harpoon II Missiles from which of the following countries?
    (A) Italy (B) China (C) France
    (D) USA (Ans : D)

    29. Which of the following is not one of the Millennium Goals set by U.N.O. ?
    (A) Achieve Universal Primary Education (B) Improve Computer Literacy
    (C) Combat HIV / AIDS (D) Environmental sustainability (Ans : B)

    30. Which of the following States introduced “One Kg. Rice for Rupee One” scheme, the first of its kind in the country?
    (A) West Bengal (B) Odisha (C) Bihar
    (D) Tamil Nadu (Ans : D)

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Jharkhand Urja Vikas Nigam Limited – JUVNL Recruitment 2017 – 372 Accounts Officer, Junior Accounts Clerk/Bill Clerk & Office Assistant Vacancies Exam

Nagarjun Sagar Dam is situated in which State of India ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka (D) Orissa
Ans : (B)

2. The Himalayan Mountain Ranges are not a part of which of the following States ?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Sikkim (D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

3. Which of the following is the general direction of flow of summer monsoon in India ?
(A) From South to North
(B) From South-West to South-East
(C) From South-East to South-West
(D) From South-West to North-East
Ans : (D)

4. What is the sex ratio of India as per the provisional data of census of India 2011 from the following ?
(A) 935  (B) 940
(C) 945  (D) 950
Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following is the first National Park of India ?
(A) Kanha National Park (B) Dudhwa National Park
(C) Rajaji National Park (D) Corbett National Park
Ans : (D)

6. Alaska is a part of which State from the following ?
(A) Greenland (B) United States of America
(C) Canada (D) Russia
Ans : (B)

7. In which of the following continents the Andes Mountain Range is located ?
(A) Australia (B) Europe
(C) South America (D) North America
Ans : (C)

8. The Equator does not pass through which of the following countries ?
(A) Kenya  (B) Mexico
(C) Indonesia  (D) Brazil
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following cities is known as the ‘City of Canals’ ?
(A) Amsterdam (B) Rome
(C) Venice (D) Athens
Ans : (C)

10. Which one of the following Indian States does not share border with Bhutan ?
(A) Sikkim (B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

11. Which one among the following is incorrect statement about the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) It worked with the help of a large number of committees, the most important among them being the Drafting Committee
(B) Minority communities like Christians, Anglo-Indians and Parsis were adequately represented in the Assembly
(C) It was elected on the basis of universal adult franchise
(D) Its electoral process was based on the sixth schedule of the Act of 1935 which allowed for a restricted franchise based on tax, property and educational qualification
Ans : (C)

12. The party system is the part of which larger system among the following ?
(A) social system (B) Economic system
(C) Political system (D) International system
Ans : (C)

13. Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes against which of the following ?
(A) Gold (B) Foreign security
(C) Government of India security (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

14. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by which of the following ?
(A) President of India (B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (D) Ministry of Transport
Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is the period of 12th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 2007-2012 (B) 2012-2017
(C) 2010-2015 (D) 2006-2011
Ans : (B)

16. In India, National Income is computed by which of the following ?
(A) Planning Commission (B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Statistical Organisation (D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (C)

17. Who among the following is associated with ‘White Revolution ?
(A) P. J. Kurien (B) Verghese Kurien
(C) M. S. Swaminathan (D) M. S. Raghunathan
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following Banks is the Central Bank of India ?
(A) State Bank of India (B) Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following was the Speaker of first Lok Sabha ?
(A) G. V. Mavalankar (B) K. M. Munshi
(C) G. B. Pant (D) Acharya Kriplani
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking/enterprise ?
(A) N.T.P.C.  (B) S.A.I.L.
(C) B.H.E.L.  (D) T.I.S.C.O.
Ans : (D)

21. Where among the following is the biggest indoor stadium situated in M.P. ?
(A) Gwalior  (B) Indore
(C) Bhopal (D) Jabalpur
Ans : (C)

22. Subrato Cup is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Football (B) Cricket
(C) Chess (D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

23. Which Olympic Swimmer amongst the following has won 18 Gold medals in his career ?
(A) Michel Phelps (U.S.A.) (B) Florent Manaudov (France)
(C) Cullen Jones (U.S.A.) (D) Ian Thorpe (Australia)
Ans : (A)

24. Mary Kom is a recipient of–
(A) Bronze medal in 2012 Olympic (B) Arjun Award
(C) Padma Shree (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

25. Who among the following is the Chairman of Madhya Pradesh Sports Council at present ?
(A) Kailash Vijay Vargiya (B) Shivraj Singh Chauhan
(C) Tukoji Rao Pawar (D) Vikram Varma
Ans : (C)

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Office of the Principal Chief Conservator of Forest – Government of Assam Recruitment 2017 – 710 Junior Assistant, Forest Guard & Various Vacancies Exam

  1. How many players play on the ground from one team in Kho-kho, Kabaddi, Volleyball and Basketball respectively ?
    (A) 7, 9, 5, 6  (B) 5, 6, 7, 9
    (C) 9, 7, 6, 5  (D) 7, 5, 6, 9
    Ans : (C)

    27. Which of the following awards is given by the Madhya Pradesh government to a coach for his dedication in sports ?
    (A) Dronacharya award (B) Parashuram award
    (C) Vishwamitra award (D) sandipani award
    Ans : (C)

    28. What is the name of the goal-keeper of Indian Hockey team/teams which won gold medals in1956 and 1964 Olympic games ?
    (A) Dhyanchand (B) Ajitpal Singh
    (C) Roop Singh (D) Shankar Laxman
    Ans : (D)

    29. Which cricket-player among the following has been honoured by Board of Control for Cricket in India giving him C. K. Naidu Lifetime Achievement Award ?
    (A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Anil Kumble
    (C) Sachin Tendulkar (D) Saurav Ganguli
    Ans : (A)

    30. Who among the following won the World Billiard Championship, 2012 ?
    (A) Mike Russel (B) Rupesh Shah
    (C) Dhruva sitwala (D) Pankaj Advani
    Ans : (D)

    31. Who among the following was awarded the prestigious ‘Kalidas samman’ of Madhya Pradesh Government in November 2012 ?
    (A) Lata Mangeshkar (B) Amir Khan
    (C) Anupam Kher (D) Pandit Ravishankar
    Ans : (C)

    32. Maximum Soybean is produced in which area of Madhya Pradesh among the following ?
    (A) Malwa (B) Bundelkhand
    (C) Baghelkhand (D) None of the above
    Ans : (A)

    33. The boundary of which district of M. P. among the following does not touch Uttar Pradesh ?
    (A) Bhind  (B) Satana
    (C) Shivpuri  (D) Sheopur
    Ans : (D)

    34. Which one of the following is the smallest district of M. P. (in population) ?
    (A) Sheopur  (B) Raisen
    (C) Datia  (D) Harda
    Ans : (D)

    35. Who among the following was the first Chief Minister of M.P. ?
    (A) Ravishankar Shukla (B) Kailashnath Katju
    (C) Pattabhi Sitarammaiya (D) None of the above
    Ans : (A)

    36. What is the number of Jyotirlings in M.P. out of twelve Jyotirlingas of India ?
    (A) 1  (B) 2
    (C) 3  (D) 4
    Ans : (B)

    37. With whom among the following ‘Mandu’ is associated ?
    (A) Jiwaji Rao (B) Rani Rupmati
    (C) Allauddin Khan (D) Jhalkari Bai
    Ans : (B)

    38. Which one of the following tribes of M.P. is the biggest in population ?
    (A) Saharia  (B) Bheel
    (C) Cole  (D) Bharia
    Ans : (B)

    39. Where among the following famous place for sculpture ‘Phadake Studio’ is situated ?
    (A) Gwalior  (B) Rewa
    (C) Dhar  (D) Bhopal
    Ans : (C)

    40. Where is the All India Classical Dance Festival organised every year in M.P. ?
    (A) Pachmarhi (B) Khajuraho
    (C) Gwalior (D) Orachha
    Ans : (B)

    41. Sometimes back, Parliament of which country has given extension of six months to Constitutional Assembly to frame new Constitution ?
    (A) Bhutan (B) Nepal
    (C) China (D) None of the above
    Ans : (B)

    42. By the end of which year, America has given a call to withdraw 33,000 soldiers from Afghanistan ?
    (A) 2012  (B) 2013
    (C) 2014  (D) 2015
    Ans : (A)

    43. In November 2011, the Pakistan and China held a joint military exercise along which of the following rivers ?
    (A) Indus (B) Chenab
    (C) Jhelum (D) None of the above
    Ans : (C)

    44. Which of the following countries boycotted the International Conference on Syria ?
    (A) China (B) Russia
    (C) U.S.A. (D) Both (A) and (B)
    Ans : (D)

    45. First lady, other than the queen of Britain who had addressed both houses of British Parliament is-
    (A) Indira Gandhi (B) Benazir Bhutto
    (C) Sonia Gandhi (D) Aung San Suukyi
    Ans : (D)

    46. Sir Creek Dispute is in between which of the following two countries ?
    (A) India-Pakistan (B) Afghanistan-Pakistan
    (C) China-India (D) India-Bangladesh
    Ans : (A)

    47. Anna Hazare got what place in the list of 36 demonstrators released by TIME now ?
    (A) First  (B) Fifth
    (C) Tenth  (D) Fifteenth
    Ans : (C)

    48. Which one of the following is the ‘National Voters Day’ ?
    (A) June 5  (B) November 1
    (C) January 25 (D) March 8
    Ans : (C)

    49. Where was the Asian Shooting Championship, 2012 organised ?
    (A) Kuala Lumpur (B) Colombo
    (C) Azerbaijan (D) Doha
    Ans : (D)

    50. In which country is Malala being treated ?
    (A) Pakistan  (B) Britain
    (C) America  (D) Germany
    Ans : (B)

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Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited – UPPCL Recruitment 2017 – 2555 Stenographer & Office Assistant Vacancies Exam

51. In which district of M.P. is the Industry of Traction Alternators for diesel engines proposed in the rail budget of 2012-13 ?
(A) Satna  (B) Gwalior
(C) Vidisha  (D) Bhopal
Ans : (C)

52. In which district of M.P. Mandideep Industrial Cluster is situated ?
(A) Vidisha  (B) Bhopal
(C) Sehore  (D) Raisen
Ans : (D)

53. In which district of M.P. is railway sleeper manufacturing factory situated ?
(A) Sehore (B) Bhopal
(C) Hoshangabad (D) Betul
Ans : (A)

54. Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Vimla Sharma (B) Vijaya Raje Scindia
(C) Nirmala Yadav (D) Uma Bharti
Ans : (D)

55. Jaldeep Yojana was initially started by M.P. Government from which reservoir ?
(A) Indira Sagar (B) Gandhi Sagar
(C) Baan Sagar (D) Yeshwant Sagar
Ans : (A)

56. At present, who is the Speaker of Madhya Pradesh Assembly ?
(A) Ishwardas Rohani (B) Mukuhd Nevalkar
(C) Shreenivas Tewari (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

57. Who was the Chief Minister of M.P. on 1-11-2000 at the time of division of State ?
(A) Arjun Singh (B) Digvijay Singh
(C) sundarlal Patwa (D) Virendra Kumarsaklecha
Ans : (B)

58. From where the Reliance Industries got the coal bed Methane reserve in M.P. ?
(A) Suhagpur  (B) Guna
(C) Balaghat  (D) Rewa
Ans : (A)

59. Where is Dushyant Kumar Manuscript Museum situated ?
(A) Bhopal  (B) Jabalpur
(C) Ujjain  (D) Balaghat
Ans : (A)

60. Who constructed the Sanchi Stupa ?
(A) Chandragupta (B) Gautarn Buddha
(C) Mahavira (D) Ashoka
Ans : (D)

61. Which of the following protocol may be used for accessing world wide web ?
(A) HTTP (B) SMTP
(C) SLIP (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

62. Which of the following is a valid domain name extension ?
(A) .com (B) .gov
(C) .net (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

63. URL stands for-
(A) Unique Resource Locator (B) Universal Resource Locator
(C) Uniform Resource Locator (D) United Resource Locator
Ans : (C)

64. e-Mail stands for-
(A) Electrical Mail (B) Electronic Mail
(C) Elastic Mail (D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following is free e-mail service provider ?
(A) Hotmail (B) Rediffmail
(C) Yahoo (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

66. HTML stands for-
(A) Hybrid Text Markup Language
(B) Hypertext Markup Language
(C) Higher Text Markup Language
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

67. A computer virus is-
(A) A computer program that can replicate itself
(B) A virus that affects health of human being
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

68. A computer hacker is-
(A) a person who maintains computer security
(B) a person who violates computer security with malicious intention for personal gain
(C) a person responsible for safe computer operation
(D) a person who repairs computer
Ans : (B)

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