Tag: General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited – BSNL Recruitment – 2710 Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Vacancies

1. The share of new partner in the profits is 1/5 and his capital is Rs. 20,000. The new profit sharing ratio is 3 : 1 : 1. The share of partners in total capital will be—
(A) 60,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(B) 80,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(C) 50,000 : 20,000 : 25,000
(D) None of the above

2. At the time of dissolution the loss of the business, will be compensated first of all from—
(A) Capital
(B) Profits
(C) Personal resources of the partners
(D) Donations

3. The meaning of written down value is—
(A) Original cost – Scrap value
(B) Book value + Depreciation
(C) Book value – Depreciation
(D) None of these

4. Given :
Depreciation on the basis of Fixed Instalment Method Rs. 2,000 p.a.
Establishment expenses Rs. 5,000
Scrap value Rs. 1,000
Span of life 10 years
The cost of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 16,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) None of these

5. Given :
Cost Rs. 1,00,000
Scrap Value Rs. 10,000
Span of Life 10 years
Rate of depreciation 20% p.a.
The amount of depreciation for the first year on the basis of diminishing balance method will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 18,000
(C) Rs. 9,000
(D) Rs. 10,000

6. Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the answer codes given below—
(a) AS-6
(b) AS-10
(c) AS-26
(d) AS-20
1. Accounting for Earning per share
2. Accounting for intangible and fictitious assets
3. Accounting for fixed assets
4. Depreciation Accounting
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

7. Establishment expenses of a new machine will be debited to—
(A) Expenses Account
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Machinery Account
(D) None of the above

8. Goodwill is—
(A) Floating Asset
(B) Wasting Asset
(C) Fictitious Asset
(D) Intangible Asset

9. A Balance Sheet shows only—
(A) Personal Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(B) Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(C) Personal Accounts and Real Accounts
(D) Personal, Real and Nominal Accounts

10. Discount on Issue of Shares A/c is shown at the—
(A) Debit side of P & L A/c
(B) Assets side of B/S
(C) Liabilities side of B/S
(D) None of the above

11. Pre-incorporation Profit is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Capital Reserve
(C) Profit and Loss A/c
(D) Trading A/c

12. Which of the following is shown in Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c ?
(A) Provision for Income Tax
(B) Provision for Depreciation
(C) Provision for Doubtful Debts
(D) Contribution to General Reserve

13. On liquidation of a Company first payment is made in respect of—
(A) Liquidator’s remuneration
(B) Legal expenses
(C) Preferential creditors
(D) None of the above

14. Workmen’s Compensation Fund is a—
(A) Provision
(B) Surplus
(C) Current liability
(D) Loan

15. Debentures of Rs. 4,25,000 are issued against the purchase of assets of Rs. 4,50,000. In this case the amount of Rs. 25,000 is—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Securities Premium
(C) Revenue Profit
(D) Goodwill

16. A Company can reissue its forfeited shares—
(A) At a premium
(B) At a face value
(C) At a discount
(D) All of the above

17. Which of the following is an example of capital expenditure ?
(A) Insurance Premium
(B) Taxes and Legal expenses
(C) Depreciation
(D) Custom duty on import of machinery

18. Given :
Average profit of a firm Rs. 21,000
Normal Profit Rs. 18,000
Value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchases of super profit shall be—
(A) Rs. 39,000
(B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 12,000

19. A co-operative auditor starts his work of audit from—
(A) Account Books
(B) Payment Books
(C) Cash Book
(D) None of the above

20. Accounting for research and development relates to—
(A) AS-7
(B) AS-8
(C) AS-9
(D) AS-10

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Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited – BSNL Recruitment – 2710 Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Vacancies

Which one of the following rivers originates near Mahabaleshwar ?
(A) Godavari (B) Krishna (C) Kaveri (D) Tapi

2. With reference to the climate of India, the western disturbances originate over which one of the following ?
(A) Arabian Sea (B) Baltic Sea (C) Caspian Sea (D) Mediterranean Sea

3. In which one of the following states is the Nanga Parbat peak located ?
(A) Sikkim (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Uttarakhand

4. In India, which of the following are the Southernmost hills ?
(A) Anaimalai hills (B) Cardamom hills (C) Nilgiri hills (D) Javari hills

5. Where are the Coal Reserves of India largely concentrated ?
(A) Son valley (B) Mahanadi valley (C) Damodar valley (D) Godavari valley

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Lake)
(a) Chilika Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (c) Sambhar Lake (d) Vembanad Lake
List-II (State)
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Odisha 4. Rajasthan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2

7. Indian Standard Time is governed by which of the following longitude ?
(A) 72½° East longitude (B) 77½° East longitude
(C) 80° East longitude (D) 82½° East longitude

8. Which one of the following Indian states leads in the production of rubber ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Karnataka (C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh

9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Name of the Mountain Range — Location in the Himalayas(A) Zanskar range — Kashmir
(B) Dhauladhar Range — Himachal Pradesh
(C) Singalila Range — Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Kumaon Range — Uttarakhand

10. Between which ranges does the Kashmir valley in the Himlayas lie ?
(A) Siwalik and Pir Panjal
(B) Pirpanjal and Dhauladhar
(C) Zanskar and Pir Panjal
(D) Dhauladhar and Zanskar

11. Indravati is a tributary of which river ?
(A) Ganga (B) Godavari (C) Krishna (D) Mahanadi

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Town)
(a) Bhadravathy (b) Coimbatore (c) Kapurthala (d) Surat
List-II (Industry)
1. Gem cutting 2. Electrical motors 3. Steel 4. Railway coach
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1

13. What is the name of the major base of Indian Navy at Karwar ?
(A) INS Kadamba (B) INS Vikramaditya (C) INS Harshvardhan (D) INS Kushan

14. Where is Thattekad Bird Sanctuary located ?
(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh

15. In which one of the following states of India is the Pamayangtse Monastery situated ?
(A) Nagaland (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Sikkim (D) Arunachal Pradesh

16. What is the average life expectancy in India ?
(A) 50 years (B) 72 years (C) 64 years (D) 36 years

17. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) NH 2 — Delhi – Kolkata
(B) NH 4 — Chennai – Thane
(C) NH 3 — Agra – Mumbai
(D) NH 9 — Delhi – Mumbai

18. Nagda is well known as a centre of production of—
(A) Steel (B) Automobiles (C) Viscose staple fibre (D) Electric motors

19. Where is the college of defence management Located ?
(A) Dehradun (B) Wellington (C) Pune (D) Secunderabad

20. In which state is the hydel power project Nathpa Jhakari located ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Uttarakhand (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Madhya Pradesh

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Karnataka AHVS Recruitment 2017 Application Form 550 Posts

  1. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” It was said by—
    (A) H. J. Laski
    (B) W. Austin
    (C) J. Bentham
    (D) T. Acquinas
    Ans : (B)102. Hobbes has been called an individualist because—
    (A) he permits Natural Rights to the individual
    (B) he allows Right to Revolt against the sovereign
    (C) his Monarch has been given absolute powers by the people
    (D) his entire philosophy focuses on the security of the individual in the state
    Ans : (D)

    103. According to Rousseau the State of Nature has to be terminated because—
    (A) Human nature was wicked
    (B) Natural rights were in danger
    (C) Art and culture were to be preserved
    (D) Inequality created the institution of property
    Ans : (D)

    104. According to Karl Marx, State—
    (A) is a result of surplus value
    (B) is a permanent agency of exploitation of the poor
    (C) is a class organisation which was to wither away
    (D) is a product of social contract between rich and powerful
    Ans : (C)

    105. Which one of the following is a Liberal thinker ?
    (A) J. S. Mill
    (B) Thomas Moore
    (C) George Sorel
    (D) A. R. Orage
    Ans : (A)

    106. A welfare state is a/an—
    (A) democratic state
    (B) socialist state
    (C) secular state
    (D) administrative state
    Ans : (A)

    107. “Socialism is like a hat which has lost its shape because everybody wears it.” Who said this ?
    (A) Charles Fourier
    (B) Proudhoun
    (C) C.E.M. Joad
    (D) Alexander Gray
    Ans : (C)

    108. Guild Socialism is a half way house between—
    (A) Democracy and Socialism
    (B) Socialism and Marxism
    (C) Collectivism and Syndicalism
    (D) Marxism and State Socialism
    Ans : (C)

    109. A socialist state believes in giving—
    (A) maximum functions to the State
    (B) minimum functions to the State
    (C) negative functions to the State
    (D) no functions to the State
    Ans : (A)

    110. Proportional representation is also called as—
    (A) MacDonald method
    (B) Hare plan
    (C) Single voting
    (D) List system
    Ans : (B)

    111. Who was the author of ‘Arthashastra’ ?
    (A) Kautilya
    (B) Adam Smith
    (C) Patanjali
    (D) Malthus
    Ans : (A)

    112. Socialism as a political philosophy is not opposed to—
    (A) Capitalism
    (B) Feudalism
    (C) Social engineering
    (D) Competition
    Ans : (C)

    113. Fabian socialists believe in—
    (A) inevitability of gradualness
    (B) non-violence for social status quo
    (C) revolutionary reforms
    (D) minimum consumption
    Ans : (A)

    114. A democratic form of government can be contrasted from a totalitarian form of government on the basis of—
    (A) Constitutionalism
    (B) Electoral system
    (C) Rule of Law
    (D) Opposition parties
    Ans : (C)

    115. Minorities and special interests can be best represented on democratic bodies by a system of—
    (A) plural voting
    (B) professional representation
    (C) proportional representation
    (D) separate electorates
    Ans : (C)

    116. The book entitled ‘Grammar of Politics’ was written by—
    (A) E. Barker
    (B) H. Laski
    (C) H. Lasswell
    (D) A. Appodari
    Ans : (B)

    117. Mr. H. G. Sorel was a—
    (A) Guild socialist
    (B) Syndicalist
    (C) Fabian socialist
    (D) Utopian socialist
    Ans : (B)

    118. “Nothing against the state, nothing beyond the state, everything within the state” was the political philosophy of—
    (A) Hegel
    (B) Marx
    (C) Mussolini
    (D) Mao
    Ans : (A)

    119. Marxism and Fascism agree about—
    (A) the nature of state
    (B) the role of religion
    (C) the utility of wars
    (D) the totalitarian character of government
    Ans : (D)

    120. The socialists consider the state as—
    (A) a necessary evil
    (B) an unnecessary evil
    (C) a divine institution
    (D) a positive good
    Ans : (D)

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TRB Tamil Nadu Recruitment 2017 Online Application Form 1111 Posts Exam

81. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? The President of India can—
(A) summon each House of Parliament
(B) address both the Houses of Parliament
(C) prorogue either House of Parliament
(D) dissolve both the Houses of Parliament
Ans : (D)

82. The Presiding Officer of the Upper House of Indian Parliament is—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (B)

83. The Act of 1919 provided for—
(A) Annulment of Veto power of the Governor General
(B) Bicameral legislature at the centre
(C) End of communal representation
(D) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre
Ans : (B)

84. The Communal Electorate System was introduced by the British in India for the first time through—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)

85. The Political Party commands absolute majority in Lok Sabha. It means—
(A) membership is more than 50%
(B) majority in membership
(C) majority support
(D) 50% membership
Ans : (A)

86. Parliament of India consists of—
(A) Legislative Assembly, Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker, Lok Sabha, Council of State
Ans : (C)

87. The State, which elects the largest members of Lok Sabha, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

88. The ‘Trusteeship Theory’ signifies—
(A) property as theft
(B) state ownership of means of production
(C) abolition of private property
(D) owners consider wealth ‘for society’
Ans : (D)

89. Cripps proposals is a ‘post-dated cheque’ on a failing bank. This is the view of—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajgopalachari
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)

90. The Prime Minister of India is—
(A) appointed
(B) elected
(C) nominated
(D) selected
Ans : (A)

91. In India, the Money Bill is first introduced in—
(A) the Rajya Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha
(C) simultaneously in both the Houses of Parliament
(D) the Finance Commission
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following writs literally meAns : ‘We command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)

93. Where is the International Court of Justice situated ?
(A) The Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Ans : (A)

94. When was SAARC formally established ?
(A) December 1980
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) July 1987
Ans : (C)

95. Who of the following gave the idea of partyless democracy ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Lenin
(C) Jayaprakash Narayana
(D) M. K. Gandhi
Ans : (C)

96. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
Ans : (A)

97. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
Ans : (A)

98. Sino-Indian war occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)

99. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least—
(A) thrice each year with an interval of not more than two months between the two sessions
(B) twice each year with an interval of not more than three months between the two sessions
(C) twice each year with an interval of not more than four months between the two sessions
(D) twice each year with an interval of not more than six months between the two sessions
Ans : (D)

100. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Simon Commission, 1927
(B) Namak Satyagrah, 1930
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931
(D) Wavell Plan, 1944
Ans : (D)

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SDMC Recruitment 2017 Online Application Form 411 Posts Exam

61. The Simon Commission was sent to India to—
(A) study the communal problem
(B) negotiate with Gandhiji about representation of backward classes
(C) review the progress of Montford reforms
(D) report on Home Rule to the British Parliament
Ans : (C)

62. The leaders of the Khilafat movement were—
(A) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(B) Gandhi and Annie Beasant
(C) Maulana Azad and Sarojini Naidu
(D) Ali Brothers
Ans : (D)

63. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(A) Fascism—Mussolini
(B) Anarchism—Bakunin
(C) Socialism—Thomas Moore
(D) Pluralism—Kropotkin
Ans : (D)

64. The importance of Bureaucracy has greatly increased in present times on account of—
(A) the emergence of democratic state
(B) the emergence of welfare state
(C) the emergence of police state
(D) the emergence of liberal economic system
Ans : (B)

65. Freedom of Press in India is—
(A) specifically provided in the Constitution
(B) implied in the right to freedom of expression
(C) available under the Acts of Parliament
(D) available under executive orders
Ans : (B)

66. Universal Adult Franchise in India was granted by—
(A) The Act of 1919
(B) The Act of 1935
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) Constitutional Amendment in 1971
Ans : (C)

67. Representative Institutions in India were introduced for the first time by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Government of India Act 1858
(C) Indian Council Act 1861
(D) Indian Council Act 1892
Ans : (D)

68. Who is the legal sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) President and Parliament
(C) Constitution of India
(D) People of India
Ans : (B)

69. Idealist theory of Rights lays emphasis on man’s—
(A) social development
(B) economic development
(C) civil development
(D) moral development
Ans : (D)

70. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans : (C)

71. The partition of Bengal was annulled in—
(A) 1907
(B) 1908
(C) 1910
(D) 1911
Ans : (D)

72. Who, among the following, was the founder of Ghadar Party ?
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(B) Ram Chandra
(C) Bikaji Cama
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

73. The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was started in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
Ans : (A)

74. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of—
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Ram Krishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
Ans : (B)

75. The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of ‘Complete Independence’ in its session held at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Ans : (A)

76. Which what the April 13, 1919 is associated in the history of freedom struggle of India ?
(A) Start of Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Countrywide Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Adoption of pledge for complete freedom of the country
(D) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
Ans : (D)

77. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following is not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi—Noncooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave—Bhoodan
(C) M.N. Roy—Partyless Democracy
(D) J.L. Nehru—Democratic Socialism
Ans : (C)

79. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
Ans : (D)

80. In which year Madhya Pradesh State has made Panchayati Raj Act after 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)

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Gujarat Public Service Commission – GPSC Recruitment – Gujarat Administrative Service, Class-I & Gujarat Civil Service, Class- I & II (335 Vacancies)

41. Mrs. Annie Besant was associated with—
(A) Servants of India Society
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (B)

42. Who presides over the joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans : (B)

43. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religions without professing any particular religion
Ans : (D)

44. Who was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
Ans : (B)

45. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (A)

46. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

47. In India the power of judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
Ans : (C)

48. In which part of the Indian Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare state ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
Ans : (B)

49. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

50. Which one of the following commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
Ans : (A)

51. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Commission
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
Ans : (C)

53. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
Ans : (D)

54. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission of 1945 ?
(A) Sir Stafford Cripps
(B) A.V. Alexander
(C) Lord Pathik Lawrence
(D) C. Atlee
Ans : (D)

55. The partition of India was first hinted—
(A) at the II Round Table Conference
(B) in the Cripps Proposals
(C) in the Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) in the Mountbatten formula
Ans : (D)

56. The demand of the Swarajist Party was—
(A) Poorna Swaraj
(B) Parliamentary Institutions
(C) Dominion Status
(D) Communal Electorates
Ans : (C)

57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Union Planning Minister
Ans : (B)

58. Mohd. Ali Jinnah propounded the ‘Two-Nation’ theory in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)

59. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Feroz Shah Mehta
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (A)

60. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (B)

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KPSC Recruitment 2017 Online Application Form 571 Posts

21. Classless society according to Marx denotes—
(A) a tribal society
(B) a casteless society
(C) a society where there is only one class–the working class
(D) a society in which all classes are in equal proportion
Ans : (C)

22. Rousseau’s ‘General Will’ means—
(A) Will of the sovereign
(B) Will of the general public
(C) Will of majority
(D) Collective good of the people
Ans : (D)

23. The Deterrent Theory of Justice is based upon the principle of—
(A) Tit for tat
(B) Severe and exemplary punishment to prevent the reoccurrence of crime
(C) That criminals should be reformed
(D) That criminals should be treated leniently
Ans : (B)

24. Theory of Political Development means—
(A) Development of the whole state
(B) Development of the consciousness amongst the people
(C) Development of the whole society through the instrumentality of the State
(D) Development of political elite
Ans : (C)

25. Divine Origin theory of the State holds that—
(A) State was created by a saint named Divine
(B) State was created by Pope
(C) State was created by God
(D) State was created by majority vote
Ans : (C)

26. Oligarchy is a system where—
(A) representatives of the common people dominate
(B) aristocratic class dominates
(C) working class dominates
(D) peasantry dominates
Ans : (B)

27. A Totalitarian State is one in which—
(A) total power of the state is vested in one person
(B) state has total power over its subjects
(C) state caters to the total needs of its subjects
(D) state has complete control over its resources
Ans : (B)

28. The characteristic which is of the ‘List System’ but not of ‘Single Transferable Vote System’ is—
(A) it is proportional representation
(B) the constituency must be multiple-member
(C) quota is calculated
(D) votes are cast to the party and not the candidate
Ans : (D)

29. The scholar who first propounded the single transferable vote system is—
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Thomas Hare
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)

30. The ideology of Democratic Socialism lays emphasis on—
(A) basis of society is not competition, but cooperation
(B) state is a necessary evil
(C) violent revolution
(D) class-struggle theory
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Hobbes ?
(A) Men entered into a single contract
(B) Sovereign enjoyed absolute powers
(C) Men can appoint their ruler
(D) The contract was one-sided
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following contains the elements of the historical theory of the origin of the State ?
(A) Kinship, religion, war, political consciousness
(B) War, customs, kingship, dictates of natural law
(C) Kingship, force, mutual agreements, political leadership
(D) Blood-relations, contractual agreements, religion, anarchy
Ans : (A)

33. The basic principle of liberalism is—
(A) social justice
(B) equality
(C) individual freedom
(D) nationalism
Ans : (C)

34. Modern Individualism demands freedom for—
(A) Group
(B) Individual
(C) People
(D) Working class
Ans : (A)

35. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Bodin
(D) Machiavelli
Ans : (B)

36. Who propagated “the greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
Ans : (B)

37. Input-output model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
Ans : (C)

38. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, territory, constitution, power
(B) Population, territory, government, sovereignty
(C) Population, territory, political party, sovereignty
(D) Population, power, authority, sovereignty
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following theories of origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine theory of origin of state
(B) Force theory
(C) Evolutionary theory
(D) Social contract theory
Ans : (C)

40. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) MacIver
Ans : (A)

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  1. From whom did the English secure the rights of duty free trade after Bengal ?
    (A) Nawab of Awadh
    (B) Raja of Banaras
    (C) The Nizam of Hyderabad
    (D) The Jats of Bharatpur
    Ans : (A)

    102. With whom did Raja Ranjit Singh conclude the treaty of Lahore in 1806 which gave him freedom to expand north of Sutlej ?
    (A) Peshwa Bajirao II
    (B) Holkar of Indore
    (C) Scindia of Gwalior
    (D) East India Company
    Ans : (D)

    103. Who among the following did not become a prey of Dalhousie’s policy of absorption ?
    (A) Satara
    (B) Nagpur
    (C) Scindia
    (D) Mysore
    Ans : (D)

    104. Why did Mumbai (Bombay) and Chennai (Madras) not join the revolt of 1857 along with northern provinces ?
    (A) They failed to find necessary leadership due to ryotwari settlement
    (B) They had remained comparatively free from annexations and confiscations
    (C) They had more tolerant and enlightened administrators
    (D) They were at a great distance from Kolkata (Calcutta), the seat of British administration
    Ans : (D)

    105. What was the grieviest cause of discontent among soldiers before the revolt of 1857 ?
    (A) Question of promotion and pay
    (B) Non-observance of caste distinctions
    (C) Frequent campaigns in distant lands
    (D) Absence of a proper and equitable procedure for discipline and control
    Ans : (A)

    106. Who led the revolt of 1857 in Lucknow ?
    (A) Tatya Tope
    (B) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
    (C) Birjis Qadir
    (D) Begum Hazrat Mahal
    Ans : (D)

    107. Who among the following said, “One religion, one caste and one God for mankind” ?
    (A) Jyotiba Phule
    (B) Vivekananda
    (C) Sri Narayan Guru
    (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
    Ans : (C)

    108. Which is called the ‘magna carta’ of western education system in India ?
    (A) The report of the Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
    (B) The Charter Act of 1833
    (C) Report of the Hunter Commission, 1862
    (D) Despatch of Sir Charles Wood, Secretary of State, 1854
    Ans : (D)

    109. Which of the following organizations did Raja Ram Mohan Roy conceive of ahead of his times ?
    (A) World Court of Justice
    (B) Economic Community
    (C) League of Nations
    (D) Common Market
    Ans : (C)

    110. Who guided the establishment of Prarthana Samaj in Maharashtra ?
    (A) Keshub Chunder Sen
    (B) Lokhitwadi
    (C) Shibnath Shastri
    (D) Debendranath Tagore
    Ans : (A)

    111. Which of the following books does not match with its author ?
    (A) Dadabhai Naoroji—‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’
    (B) R. C. Dutt—‘Economic History of India’
    (C) Mahatma Gandhi—‘Hind Swaraj’
    (D) D. R. Gadgil—‘Indian Industry, Today and Tomorrow’
    Ans : (D)

    112. In 1922 “Bhil Seva Mandal” was established by—
    (A) Narain Malhar Joshi
    (B) Amritlal Vitthaldas Thakkar
    (C) Jyotiba Phule
    (D) Baba Amte
    Ans : (B)

    113. On what ground the second split in Congress took place in 1918 ?
    (A) Lucknow Pact
    (B) Montague Declaration
    (C) Election of Mrs. Annie Besant as the President of the Congress in 1917
    (D) Both (B) and (C) above
    Ans : (B)

    114. By which Act the Public Service Commission was first established in India ?
    (A) The Indian Council Act, 1892
    (B) The Act of 1909
    (C) The Government of India Act, 1919
    (D) The Government of India Act, 1935
    Ans : (C)

    115. Who was the mastermind of bomb attack on Lord Hardinge at Chandani Chowk, Delhi in 1912 ?
    (A) Rasbehari Bose
    (B) Bhai Paramanand
    (C) Sachindranath Sanyal
    (D) Sohan Lal Pathak
    Ans : (A)

    116. Who was selected as the first satyagrahi by Mahatma Gandhi to begin the individual satyagraha in 1940 ?
    (A) C. Rajagopalachari
    (B) Vallabhbhai Patel
    (C) J.B. Kripalani
    (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    Ans : (B)

    117. Who was the founder president of Harijan Sevak Samgha founded by Mahatma Gandhi ?
    (A) Mahadev Desai
    (B) G. D. Birla
    (C) Amrit Lal Thakkar
    (D) B. R. Ambedkar
    Ans : (C)

    118. What was the provocation behind the damand of separate electorate etc. under fourteen points of Jinnah ?
    (A) Fear of the majority rule
    (B) Communal politics of Hindu Mahasabha and Sikh League
    (C) Disagreement with the proposals contained in the Nehru report
    (D) The challenge of the British government for drawing up an agreed Constitution of India
    Ans : (C)

    119. What was the reason for the rejection of the Government of India Act, 1935 by the Congress ?
    (A) The Indians were not consulted
    (B) It was stalling the establishment of people’s government
    (C) The provisions made in the name provincial autonomy were violative of democratic rights
    (D) All of the above
    Ans : (D)

    120. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time ?
    (A) At the time of Communal award
    (B) At the time of riots in Kolkatta (Calcutta)
    (C) At the time of riots in Delhi
    (D) At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
    Ans : (D)

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81. How did Portuguese firstly affect Indian trade and industry ?
(A) By forcing Gujarat and Calicut to abandon construction of ships or even armed rowing boats
(B) By monopolising port-toport trade on the Malabar coast and the trade from Indian to Persian coast
(C) In both (A) and (B) ways above
(D) By dictating the prices of horses imported by native Indian powers after ousting Arabs
Ans : (B)

82. What was the occasion of handing over of Mumbai (Bombay) to Britishers by the Portuguese ?
(A) Freedom of Portuguese from the control of Spain
(B) Marriage of Charles II with the Portuguese princess Catherine of Braganza
(C) Crushing of Spanish Armada by British in 1588
(D) The Treaty of Madrid in 1630
Ans : (B)

83. What made Jahangir to issue a farman in 1613 A.D. to the English to establish a factory at Surat ?
(A) Reconciliation between the English and Portuguese
(B) A secret offer of naval help to the Mughal emperor to oust the Portuguese
(C) A heavy dose of bribe to Nur Jahan
(D) The defeat of Portuguese naval squadrons by the English
Ans : (D)

84. The Indian port(s) utilized by Dutch for their trade in India was/were—
(A) Pulicat
(B) Masulipattam
(C) Nagapattam
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

85. The founder of French East India Company for trade in India was—
(A) Colbert
(B) Francois Martin
(C) Francois Caron
(D) De La Haye
Ans : (A)

86. Where was the first Presidency of English East India Company in India ?
(A) Chennai (Madras)
(B) Masulipattam
(C) Surat
(D) Hugli
Ans : (C)

87. Aurangzeb ordered the arrest of all Englishmen and the seizure of all English factories throughout his dominion, because—
(A) The English had refused to pay local duties in Bengal
(B) The English had attacked the Mughal ships on the western coast
(C) The English were fortifying their trading stations
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

88. The English exported from Bengal—
(A) Sugar
(B) Saltpetre
(C) Silks
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

89. The immediate cause of Siraj-uddaula’s campaign against the English in 1757 was—
(A) The refusal of the English to pay taxes on their goods
(B) The levying of heavy duties by the English on Indian goods entering Kolkata (Calcutta)
(C) Additional fortification of Kolkata (Calcutta) without the permission or even the knowledge of the nawab
(D) The English taking up the cause of Shaukut Jang, a rival of Siraj-ud-daula
Ans : (A)

90. How was the control of company in Bengal legitimized ?
(A) The imperial grant of the ‘diwani’ of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa by Shah Alam II
(B) The treaty with Mir Zafar after the battle of Plassey in 1757
(C) The treaty with Mir Zafar after the battle of Buxar in 1764
(D) The treaty of February 1765 with Nizam-ud-daula
Ans : (D)

91. The first serious blow inflicted by the English on India’s handloom industry was—
(A) Duty imposed on the looms
(B) Compulsion of weavers to sell their goods on dictated prices
(C) Shortage of cotton due to export of raw-cotton
(D) Infiltration of cash crops like indigo and opium in the cottongrowing area
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following statements is not applicable to the Mahalwari settlement ?
(A) It was a permanant measure introduced as an improvement on the other two measures
(B) It was applied to each village and the estate separately
(C) The government instead of coming in contract with the cultivator made settlement with the village community as a whole
(D) It was introduced in the Gangetic valley, the Punjab and the parts of Central India
Ans : (A)

93. Which of the following statements about the new landlords is not correct ?
(A) They were town dwelling merchants and moneyed classes with no roots in the village
(B) They were free to harass the cultivators
(C) They were mere rent collecting absentee businessmen
(D) They had converted the peasants to mere cultivators by taking away their traditional rights over their land
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following reasons is not correct with regard to the decline of economy of India during English rule ?
(A) Lack of qualification and technical skill in the Indians
(B) Failure to get overseas market due to lack sea power
(C) Unprotected indigenous industry due to weak guild organizations
(D) Lack of the class of industrial enterprizers in India
Ans : (A)

95. Who first expounded the theory of ‘economic drain’ of India during the British rule ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Ramesh Chanda Dutt
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans : (C)

96. What among the following factors was not applicable to the conditions of abject poverty in India during the British rule ?
(A) Decay of Agricultural production and indigenuous industries
(B) Investment of foreign capital in India
(C) Insufficient growth of modern industries
(D) High taxation
Ans : (B)

97. Who among these was not a part of triple alliance on the eve of first Anglo-Mysore war of 1767-69 ?
(A) The English
(B) Nizam of Hyderabad
(C) The Marathas
(D) Raja of Travancore
Ans : (D)

98. Tipu Sultan was ahead of his contemporaries in many respect because—
(A) He understood the threat posed by English to the Indian powers
(B) He understood the importance of strong economic base for the military power
(C) He understood the importance of modern trade and industry
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

99. Who among the following Maratha chiefs was the last to enter into a subsidiary alliance with the English ?
(A) The Peshwas
(B) Holkar
(C) Bhonsle
(D) Scindia
Ans : (B)

100. On what condition Wellesly agreed to help Peshwa Bajirao II ?
(A) His agreeing to the abolition of the office of the Peshwa after his death
(B) An underhand transaction of Rs. 15 lakh
(C) His consent to the subsidiary alliance
(D) His agreeing to dispossess Scindia from his fief
Ans : (C)

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61. The dynasty founded by Khizr Khan is known as Sayyid dynasty because—
(A) He and his successors adopted the title Sayyid
(B) Khizr Khan belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern Turkistan
(C) Khizr Khan was the descendant of the prophet Muhammad
(D) He was a scholar of Islamic theology
Ans : (C)

62. Who were called barids ?
(A) Craftsmen working in state workshops
(B) Bodyguards of the sultan
(C) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
(D) The spy reporters
Ans : (D)

63. Who among the following officers held highest stature in the central government of the Sultanate ?
(A) Qazi-ul-Mulk
(B) Naib-i-Mulk
(C) Head of the Majlis-i-Khalawat
(D) Wazir
Ans : (B)

64. Who among the following did not act as a tax farmer ?
(A) Village headman
(B) Patwari
(C) Governor
(D) Tributary chief
Ans : (D)

65. In Early Medieval India “Dosi Hatt” was—
(A) Animal Market
(B) Meena Bazar
(C) Kapaas (Cotton) Market
(D) Slave Bazar
Ans : (C)

66. Who was the founder of independent kingdom of Gujarat ?
(A) Zafar Khan
(B) Tatar Khan
(C) Shama Khan
(D) Ahmad Shah
Ans : (A)

67. The single biggest item of import to the Vijayanagar empire was—
(A) Precious stones
(B) Horses
(C) Luxury goods
(D) Raw Silk
Ans : (B)

68. Which contemporary Mughal historian of the age of Akbar had prepared a list of charges calling him an enemy of Islam ?
(A) Badauni
(B) Niamtullah
(C) Abbas Khan Sarwani
(D) Nizamuddin Ahmad
Ans : (A)

69. Who is the writer of ‘Tabqat-i-Akbari’ ?
(A) Badauni
(B) Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Khwand Mir
Ans : (B)

70. Which famous painter among the following did not remain in the court of Akbar ?
(A) Farrukh Beg
(B) Dasawanth
(C) Aga Reza
(D) Basawan
Ans : (A)

71. Who among the following Mughal princess produced a ‘diwan’ (collection of poems) with the name ‘Makhi’ ?
(A) Humayun’s sister Gulbadan Begum
(B) Shah Jahan’s daughter Jahanara
(C) Shah Jahan’s daughter Roshanara
(D) Aurangzeb’s daughter Zibunnisa
Ans : (D)

72. Which jeweller foreign traveller of the Mughal period has left a detailed account of Takht-i-Taus (Peacock throne) ?
(A) Travernier
(B) Geronimo Verroneo
(C) ‘Omrah’ Danishmand Khan
(D) Austin of Bordeaux
Ans : (A)

73. Whom did Sher Shah appoint to provide bed and food to Hindu travellers staying at ‘Sarais’ (rest houses) ?
(A) Afghan Muslims
(B) Muslims
(C) Brahmanas
(D) Low caste Hindus
Ans : (D)

74. Which one among the following statements is not correct about the agrarian policy of Sher Shah ?
(A) Sher Shah insisted upon measurement of the sown land
(B) Sher Shah drew up schedule of rates for state’s share of the different types of crops
(C) The amount each peasant had to pay was to be written down on a paper called ‘patta’
(D) The measuring part was allowed to fix fee at their will
Ans : (D)

75. When did Aurangzeb arrive in Deccan finally to quell the revolt of Marathas ?
(A) 1681
(B) 1682
(C) 1689
(D) 1700
Ans : (C)

76. Which among the following is the most important source of information about the agrarian conditions during Mughals ?
(A) Ain-i-Akbari
(B) Akbarnama
(C) Muntakhab-ul-Lubab
(D) Tarikh-i-Ferishta
Ans : (B)

77. What portion of actual produce was fixed as the demand of the state under the ‘Zabit’ system ?
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-fifth
Ans : (B)

78. Which Maratha saint is most importantly known for social reform, national regeneration and the rise of Maratha power ?
(A) Eknath
(B) Tukaram
(C) Samartha Ramdas
(D) Vaman Pandit
Ans : (C)

79. The chief gain to Shivaji from his raids of Surat in 1664 and 1670 was—
(A) Immense increase in his prestige
(B) Demoralisation of the Mughal forces
(C) Capture of the English factory
(D) A lot of booty
Ans : (D)

80. What was the unit of measurement of land in Maratha dominion ?
(A) Kathi
(B) Tanab
(C) Jarib
(D) Daftari bigha
Ans : (A)

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41. Who is the writer of ‘Kitab-ur-Rehla’ ?
(A) Maulana Sharafuddin Ali Yazid
(B) Amir Timur
(C) Ibn-i-Batuta
(D) Khwaja Abdullah Malik Isami
Ans : (C)

42. Which of these books was authored by Sultan Feroz Shah Tughlaq himself ?
(A) Fautuhat-i-Ferozshahi
(B) Fatawa-i-Jahandari
(C) Tarikh-i-Ferozshahi
(D) Tughlaqnama
Ans : (A)

43. Which of these books is not a composition of Amir Khusrau ?
(A) Qiran-u-Sadain
(B) Tahqiq-i-Hind
(C) Miftah-ul-Futuh
(D) Nur-i-Sipihar
Ans : (B)

44. Who among the following kings formed a confederacy of Hindu kings against Mahmud of Ghazni ?
(A) Jaipala
(B) Anandapala
(C) Both Jaipala and Anandpala
(D) Anangapala
Ans : (C)

45. When did the Mahmud of Ghazni attack last on India ?
(A) 1021–22 A.D.
(B) 1024 A.D.
(C) 1025 A.D.
(D) 1027 A.D.
Ans : (D)

46. Name the Arab astronomer who studied Sanskrit and astronomy for a decade at Varanasi ?
(A) Alberuni
(B) Amir Khusrau
(C) Al’bidari
(D) Al’Masher
Ans : (A)

47. Who among the following foreign travellers did not visit Vijayanagar during the time of Krishnadeo Raya ?
(A) Nicolo Conti
(B) Fernao Nuniz
(C) Domingo Paes
(D) Duarte Barbosa
Ans : (A)

48. Which of these features of Indian art was adopted in the construction of Mosques in India ?
(A) Turned Lotus
(B) Kalash on the domes
(C) Ornamentation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

49. Who said, “God knows man’s virtues and inquires not his caste; in the next world there is no caste” ?
(A) Kabir
(B) Guru Nanak
(C) Chaitanya
(D) Ramananda
Ans : (A)

50. Who among these devotional saints was a cobler ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Raidas
(D) Malukdas
Ans : (C)

51. Who founded the Varkari sect in Maharashtra ?
(A) Tukaram
(B) Namdev
(C) Visoba Khechar
(D) Eknath
Ans : (C)

52. The Sufi concept of Anal Haq was inspired by the following concept of Vedanta—
(A) Tat Twam Asi (that thou art)
(B) Ekam Advaitam (one without the second)
(C) Aham Brahmasmi (I am the supreme spirit)
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

53. Which Muslim poet of Hindi literature in medieval period wrote poetry essentially on Hindu mythological heroes ?
(A) Qutban
(B) Rasakhan
(C) Mulla Daud
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans : (B)

54. Which of the following musical instruments is not composite or Indo-Islamic in origin ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Shehnai
(C) Tabla
(D) Sarangi
Ans : (B)

55. Which among the following wars Muhammad Ghori did not participate himself in India ?
(A) Battle of Tarain in 1191
(B) Battle against Kannauj in 1194
(C) Against Chalukyas of Anhilawada in 1197-98
(D) Against Khokharas in 1205
Ans : (C)

56. Who was the Turkish commander who conquered Bihar and Bengal ?
(A) Mohammad of Ghur
(B) Kutub ud-Din Aibak
(C) Ikhtiyar ud-Din-Muhammad
(D) Bakhtiyar Khalji
Ans : (D)

57. Where did Kutub ud-Din Aibak lay the foundation of ‘seven cities’ in medieval Delhi ?
(A) Siri
(B) Tughlaqabad
(C) Mehrauli
(D) Hauz Khas
Ans : (B)

58. Which Sultan called himself ‘Naib-i-Khudai’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

59. Which sultan of Delhi refused to read ‘Khutba’ in the name of Khalifa for the first time ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Ibrahim Lodi
Ans : (A)

60. Which Delhi Sultan styled himself Sikandar-i-sani (the second Alexander) ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)

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21. In which year of Asoka’s coronation did the Kalinga war take place ?
(A) First
(B) Fifth
(C) Eighth
(D) Thirteenth
Ans : (C)

22. Which among the following combinations is correct ?
(A) Pushyamitra Shunga–Patanjali
(B) Kanishka–Thera Nagasena
(C) Menander–Ashvaghosh
(D) Chandragupta I–Harishena
Ans : (C)

23. Which Gupta emperor has been called ‘Lichchhavi-dauhitra’ ?
(A) Shrigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Samudragupta
Ans : (B)

24. Which Kushana king adopted the epithet ‘dhrama-thida’ ?
(A) Vim Kadaphises
(B) Kuzul Kadaphises
(C) Kanishka the Great
(D) Huvishka
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following inscriptions record the annihilation of Hunas ?
(A) Prayag-Prashasti
(B) Bhitari Inscription
(C) Junagarh Inscription
(D) Mandasor Inscription
Ans : (C)

26. Who impressed upon Harsha to incline towards Buddhism ?
(A) Bhikshu Mahakashyapa
(B) Hiuen-Tsang
(C) Thera Nagasen
(D) Diwakarmitra
Ans : (D)

27. Which king is called ‘Kaviraj’ in one of his inscriptions ?
(A) Pratihara king Mihirbhoja
(B) Paramara king Bhoja
(C) Pala king Dharmapala
(D) Chalukya king Kumarapala
Ans : (B)

28. Who among these is credited with the construction of ‘Pagodas’ at Mahabalipuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Chalukyas of Kalyani
(C) Pallavas
(D) Pandyas
Ans : (C)

29. The Office-in-charge of collection of revenue in the Mauryan administration was—
(A) Sannidhatri
(B) Pradeshta
(C) Yukta
(D) Samahatri
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the statements about the trade regulation in the Mauryan period is not correct ?
(A) The state exercised control over the trade process and profits
(B) A levy of 1/10th was fixed on merchandise
(C) The state kept strict vigil on the sale of merchandise
(D) The state employed a few of the artisans directly
Ans : (B)

31. Which one among the following statements about the land-system of post-Mauryan period is not true ?
(A) The private individuals had absolute right over their land
(B) The private individuals had limited right to alienation of land
(C) There is no record to transfer of land non-religious purposes
(D) The person who brought the land under cultivation was the owner
Ans : (B)

32. Who among the following constituted the local town administration council during the Guptas ?
(A) Purupala, Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
(B) Purupala, Sarthavaha, Dvarapala, Karnika
(C) Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
(D) Purupala, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
Ans : (C)

33. Who lamented upon the drain of gold from Rome to India ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Nero
(C) Strabo
(D) Pliny
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following statements about the agrahara land grant is not correct ?
(A) The king could offer it to any one
(B) It was a village granted taxfree to Brahmanas
(C) The king could confiscate it on being displeased by the grantee
(D) It underlined the privileges of the Brahmanas
Ans : (A)

35. Debasement of the coins and gradual disappearance of goldcoins during the post-Gupta period indicates—
(A) Cheapness of commodities, no need of gold-coins
(B) Non-availability of gold
(C) Decline of money economy
(D) Decline of Trade
Ans : (D)

36. Which new route was added for foreign trade during Gupta period ?
(A) Overseas route to South Africa
(B) Overseas route to Alexandria
(C) Overland route to China
(D) Overland route to North Russia
Ans : (C)

37. The most famous bronze image of the Chola period belongs to—
(A) Murugan
(B) Nataraja
(C) Venkateshwar
(D) Vishnu
Ans : (B)

38. Which one among these is not a work of Kalidasa ?
(A) Ritusamhara
(B) Meghaduta
(C) Dashakumarcharita
(D) Kumarashambhava
Ans : (C)

39. The most important feature of the Dravida style of temple architecture is—
(A) Shikhara
(B) Gopuram
(C) Vimana
(D) Mandapa
Ans : (C)

40. The earliest example of a ‘Panchayatana’ composition in temple is—
(A) Dashavatara temple–Deogarh
(B) Temple at Pathari
(C) Shatrughneshwara temple at Bhubaneshwar
(D) Lakshmana temple at Sirpur
Ans : (A)

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1. Which among the following Vedas is partly in prose ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samaveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (C)

2. Which one among the following is a Tamil grammatical treatise ?
(A) Pattupattu
(B) Ettutogai
(C) Silappadikaram
(D) Tolkappiam
Ans : (D)

3. Who among the following has not quoted from the Indica of Megasthenese ?
(A) Pliny
(B) Strabo
(C) Diodorus
(D) Arrian
Ans : (C)

4. Who was the first to decipher the inscriptions of Ashoka and the Brahmi script ?
(A) Alexander Cunningham
(B) James Princep
(C) Max Muller
(D) Mortimer Wheeler
Ans : (B)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
(a) Stuart Piggot
(b) Subbarao
(c) B. and R. Alchin
(d) H. D. Sankalia
1. Personality of India
2. The Birth of Indian Civilization
3. Prehistoric India
4. Prehistory and Protohistory of India and Pakistan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (B)

6. Select the correct statement about the Nanaghat Inscription of the Satavahanas—
(A) It speaks about Shaka-Satavahana conflict
(B) It refers to the place of origin of Satavahanas
(C) It speaks about the navy of the Satavahanas
(D) It refers to one of the mother-queens of the Satavahanas
Ans : (B)

7. Which among the following excavated sites is related to Malwa culture ?
(A) Navadatoli
(B) Nagda
(C) Eran
(D) Azadnagar
Ans : (A)

8. In which one of the following regions the earliest evidence of rice cultivation has come ?
(A) Central Ganga Valley
(B) Belan Valley
(C) Gomal Valley
(D) Bolan Valley
Ans : (B)

9. Horse remains are found at which of the following Harappan sites ?
(A) Surkotada, Kalibangan and Dholavira
(B) Kalibangan, Manda and Surkotada
(C) Surkotada, Dholavira and Manda
(D) Surkotada and Kalibangan
Ans : (D)

10. Identify the incorrect combination among the following—
(A) Harappa and Grenary
(B) Mohen-jo-daro and the great bath
(C) Dholavira and single citadel
(D) Lothal and Dockyard
Ans : (C)

11. At which place among these the rows of distinctive fire altars with provision of ritual bathing have been found ?
(A) Mohen-jo-daro
(B) Harappa
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Lothal
Ans : (C)

12. The main focus of the Rigvedic culture was—
(A) The Indo-Gangetic region
(B) The Punjab and Delhi region
(C) The Indus valley region
(D) The region between Swat and Indus
Ans : (A)

13. The Rigvedic king did not maintain an administrative machinery because—
(A) The king did not wish to have so
(B) The Rigvedic economy was not suitable to it
(C) The social structure was not in accordance
(D) The kingship was not hereditary
Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following statements regarding Vedic woman is not correct ?
(A) Woman attended assemblies
(B) Woman participated in sacrifices
(C) Woman was allowed to have Vedic education
(D) The family was matriarchal
Ans : (D)

15. For what reason the ganasamgha areas have been indicated as ‘mlechchhadesha’ in the post-Vedic period ?
(A) Absence of ranking based on varna
(B) Rejection of Vedic rituals
(C) Killing of cows
(D) Speaking alien languages
Ans : (B)

16. With what name the Jainism referred to before the coming of Mahavir ?
(A) Jina
(B) Kevalin
(C) Nirgranthas
(D) Tirthankaras
Ans : (D)

17. Which tradition has most importance for deciding the dates of birth and death of lord Buddha ?
(A) Ceylones Tradition–Mahavansa and Deepavansa
(B) Chinese Tradition–Canton
(C) Indian Buddhist literature–Avadana literature
(D) Tibetan Tradition–Historian Taranath
Ans : (A)

18. Which one of the following ancient cities is not related to the life of Gautam Buddha ?
(A) Champa
(B) Saketa
(C) Pataliputra
(D) Kosambi
Ans : (C)

19. The term ‘Rupadarshaka’ denotes what ?
(A) The supervisor of prostitutes
(B) The supervisor of royal harem
(C) The supervisor of the quality of coins
(D) The supervisor of the folkdancers
Ans : (C)

20. Which one of the statements is controversial in the context of the treaty of 303 B.C. between Chandragupta and Seleucus ?
(A) Seleucus surrendered his large territories to Chandragupta
(B) Chandragupta made a gift of 500 elephants to Seleucus
(C) Megasthenes was sent as a Greek envoy to the court of Chandragupta
(D) Seleucus gave his daughter in marriage to Chandragupta
Ans : (D)

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181. The Himalayas run in an eastwest arcuate curve for about—
(A) 2000 km
(B) 2500 km
(C) 3000 km
(D) 4000 km
Ans : (B)

182. Second Five-Year Plan was completed on—
(A) 31.3.1961
(B) 15.6.1961
(C) 20.8.1962
(D) 29.9.1962
Ans : (A)

183. All the colours on a TV screen are produced from—
(A) Red, Blue, Green
(B) Red, Violet, Green
(C) Blue, Violet, Yellow
(D) Blue, Green, Yellow
Ans : (A)

184. Who does finalise budget ?
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Management Accountant
(C) Finance Manager
(D) Budget Committee
Ans : (D)

185. In the Central budget estimate (2007-08) the largest item of nonplan expenditure on revenue account is—
(A) Defence
(B) Subsidies
(C) Interest payments
(D) Pensions
Ans : (C)

186. Inventory carrying costs include the following :
(A) Spoilage and desolescence
(B) Abrehousing, insurance and tax
(C) Opportunity cost
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

187. IC chips for computers are usually made of—
(A) Lead
(B) Chromium
(C) Copper
(D) Silicon
Ans : (D)

188. The Jammu-Srinagar road follows …… Pass.
(A) Banihal
(B) Shipkila
(C) Pir Panjal
(D) Zemu
Ans : (C)

189. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor General controls all disbursements and audits the accounts of both the Union and State Governments
(B) He annually submits a report to the President relating to the accounts of the Union
(C) The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is considered by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament
(D) No money by the Union and State Governments can be spent without prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans : (D)

190. The Preamble was amended by the—
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 37th Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)

191. Bibi-Ka-Maqbara is located at—
(A) Agra
(B) Delhi
(C) Aurangabad
(D) Ajmer
Ans : (C)

192. The Himalayan rivers are typical example of …… drainage.
(A) antecedent
(B) subsequent
(C) consequent
(D) obsequent
Ans : (A)

193. Medical insurance premium is deductible—
(A) If the premium is paid in cash out of income chargeable to tax
(B) If the premium is paid by cheque out of income chargeable to tax
(C) If the premium is deposited to Life Insurance Corporation
(D) If the premium is paid for insurance of the life of a senior citizen only
Ans : (B)

194. Budget is known as—
(A) Financial Statement
(B) Annual Budget
(C) Financial Statement of the year
(D) It has no other name
Ans : (C)

195. ‘Golden Globe’ Award is associated with—
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Sports
(D) Cinema
Ans : (D)

196. Tipam sandstones are found in—
(A) Kashmir
(B) U. P.
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Assam
Ans : (D)

197. The Constitution of India recognises—
(A) 12 Regional languages
(B) 13 Regional languages
(C) 14 Regional languages
(D) 18 Regional languages
Ans : (D)

198. No demand for a grant under Article 113 of the Constitution shall be made except on the recommendation of the—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker of the Parliament
(C) President
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (C)

199. Penicillin was discovered by—
(A) Michael Faraday
(B) Sir Alexander Fleming
(C) William Harvey
(D) Charles Goodyear
Ans : (B)

200. The Chumbi Valley is located in—
(A) Sikkim
(B) Bhutan
(C) Assam
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (B)

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161. What does DTP stands for ?
(A) Data typing process
(B) Desktop Publishing
(C) Desktop processing
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

162. What is meant by ‘Primary deficit’ in a budget ?
(A) Total Receipts minus Total Expenditure
(B) Revenue Receipts minus Revenue Expenditure
(C) Budget Deficit plus Government’s Market Borrowing
(D) Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments
Ans : (D)

163. Which statesman was able to integrate Indian native States after independence ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballavbhai Patel
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

164. The qualification of member of Finance Commission may be determined by the—
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (A)

165. Which State is the leading producer of wheat ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

166. Receipts and Payments Account record receipts and payments of—
(A) Capital nature only
(B) Revenue nature only
(C) Both capital and revenue nature
(D) Deferred revenue nature only
Ans : (C)

167. The share of service sector in Gross Domestic Product for the year 2001-02, was—
(A) 40•3%
(B) 54•1%
(C) 38•7%
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

168. Who was the founder commander of the Indian National Army (INA) ?
(A) Rashbehari Bose
(B) Capt. Mohan Singh
(C) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) None of them
Ans : (C)

169. Where do Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join to form Ganga ?
(A) Karna Prayag
(B) Rudra Prayag
(C) Dev Prayag
(D) Gangotri
Ans : (C)

170. Second Five-Year Plan of Government of India was launched in—
(A) November 1956
(B) April 1956
(C) June 1957
(D) December 1957
Ans : (B)

171. As per the Census 2001, the population of West Bengal was—
(A) 10 crores
(B) 8•01 crores
(C) 6•5 crores
(D) 9 crores
Ans : (B)

172. Who was the founder of the Indian Independence League ?
(A) Krishna Verma
(B) Rashbehari Bose
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

173. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Ans : (D)

174. The share of direct taxes in total tax revenue of the Centre for the year 2003-04 was—
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 45%
(D) 38%
Ans : (D)

175. Managerial Grid Leadership theory was invented by—
(A) Blake and Moutan
(B) Tannenbaum and Schmidt
(C) Perry and Franklin
(D) Mc Gregor
Ans : (A)

176. Money Bill can be made—
(A) Invalid by Rajya Sabha
(B) Invalid by both the Houses of Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

177. What new names were given to Andaman and Nicobar Islands by the Provisional I.N.A. Government in 1944 after their liberation ?
(A) Mother India
(B) Azad
(C) ‘Sahid’ and ‘Swaraj’—respectively
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

178. Which planet appears to be the brightest in the night sky ?
(A) Jupiter
(B) Venus
(C) Saturn
(D) Mars
Ans : (B)

179. The Governor of RBI at present is—
(A) C. Rangrajan
(B) Bimal Jalan
(C) D. Subba Rao
(D) V. Kelkar
Ans : (C)

180. Depreciation on plant and machinery is—
(A) Not a cash cost, so is ignored in the cost accounts
(B) Part of manufacturing overhead
(C) Part of prime cost
(D) Always calculated using the straight-line method
Ans : (D)

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141. The fifth term of the following alphabet series is BCYX, EFVU, HISR, KLPO, ?
Ans : (A)

142. The Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in the year—
(A) 1961
(B) 1971
(C) 1988
(D) 2001
Ans : (C)

143. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to—
(A) Consolidated Fund of the State
(B) Consolidated Fund of India
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) (A) and (B) in equal proportion
Ans : (A)

144. Who was founder of Vijayanagar empire ?
(A) Krishna Deva Raya
(B) Devoraya I
(C) Harihar and Bukka
(D) Ram Raya
Ans : (C)

145. By selling an article at Rs. 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at Rs. 360, his gain per cent is—
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 25
Ans : (B)

146. If a company has 10 directors, quorum for directors’ board meeting is—
(A) 2 Directors
(B) 3 Directors
(C) 4 Directors
(D) 5 Directors
Ans : (C)

147. In case of hire-purchase the ownership goes to the purchaser—
(A) On signing the contract
(B) On payment of down payment
(C) On payment of 1st instalment
(D) On payment of last instalment
Ans : (D)

148. The number of Public sector enterprises included in ‘Navaratna’ category in the year 1998-99 was—
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 7
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

149. Who started the ‘Home Rule’ Movement ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Mrs. Anne Besant
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

150. How many days’ notice must be given to all members for annual general meeting of company ?
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 30 days
Ans : (C)

151. In VED analysis E stands for—
(A) Estimated
(B) Essential
(C) Equated
(D) Entity
Ans : (B)

152. Narasimham Committee Report, 1991 was related to—
(A) Agricultural Reform
(B) Trade Reform
(C) Tax Reform
(D) Financial Sector Reform
Ans : (D)

153. ‘‘Land of Midnight Sun’’ is—
(A) Japan
(B) Finland
(C) Thailand
(D) Norway
Ans : (D)

154. At which place Gandhiji had the first experience of mass movement in India ?
(A) Bardoli
(B) Dandi
(C) Chauri Chaura
(D) Champaran
Ans : (D)

155. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by—
(A) The President of India
(B) The Council of Ministers
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (A)

156. The Secretary of a municipality is appointed by—
(A) The Commissioners
(B) The Chairman
(C) The State Government
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

157. The author of the book ‘My Truth’ is—
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) R. K. Narayan
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Indira Gandhi
Ans : (D)

158. The Unit Trust of India was formally established in the year—
(A) 1951
(B) 1964
(C) 1970
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)

159. What was the main aim of the Cabinet Mission ?
(A) To work out details for transfer of power
(B) To establish a constituent Assembly for framing a Constitution
(C) To enquire into the working of the Act of 1919
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

160. In passenger-transport industry which of the following cost unit is applied ?
(A) Passenger-hour
(B) Passenger-kilometre
(C) Per kilometre
(D) Per hour
Ans : (B)

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121. Khilafat Movement subsided because—
(A) Britishers gave concession to the Muslims
(B) The National Congress and the Muslim League achieved unity
(C) Accession of Kamal Pasha on the throne of Turkey
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

122. Judges of Supreme Court hold office up to the age of—
(A) 56
(B) 62
(C) 60
(D) 65
Ans : (D)

123. …… is the highest point of South Bengal.
(A) Goraburu
(B) Banduan
(C) Bagmundi
(D) Ayodhya
Ans : (A)

124. Who was the founder of Bhoodan Movement ?
(A) Vinoba Bhave
(B) Baba Amte
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
(D) Manabendra Nath Roy
Ans : (A)

125. Where is Taxila ?
(A) In Bihar
(B) In West Punjab (now in Pakistan)
(C) In U. P.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

126. An exceptional grant, which forms no part of the current service of any financial year, may be authorised under Art. 116 (1) (c) by the—
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Parliament
Ans : (D)

127. Gopiballavpur is situated by the side of …… river.
(A) Kangsabati
(B) Dulung
(C) Subarnarekha
(D) Rupnarayan
Ans : (C)

128. Who first proposed the creation of ‘Pakistan’ as a separate State ?
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(B) Syed Ahmed Khan
(C) Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Chaudhuri Rahmat Ali
Ans : (C)

129. The largest contribution to India’s foreign exchange reserve in value terms comes from—
(A) Engineering Goods
(B) Software Services
(C) Gems and Jewellery
(D) Readymade Garments
Ans : (C)

130. Which Art. empowers the President to constitute Finance Commission ?
(A) 72
(B) 76
(C) 280
(D) 281
Ans : (C)

131. Which of the following Committees of Parliament is concerned with the regularity and economy of the expenditure of the Government ?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

132. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was implemented in the year—
(A) 1951
(B) 1960
(C) 1970
(D) 1991
Ans : (D)

133. The ratio of the sum and difference of two numbers is 7 : 3. The ratio of the numbers is—
(A) 7 : 3
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 3 : 7
(D) 2 : 5
Ans : (B)

134. The first political society started under British rule in India was—
(A) Brahma Samaj
(B) Arya Samaj
(C) Land holders society
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

135. Statutory meeting of a public company is held—
(A) Once in the lifetime of the company
(B) Once in every year
(C) Twice in every year
(D) Thrice in every year
Ans : (A)

136. India’s First Five-Year Plan was inaugurated in—
(A) May 1952
(B) June 1953
(C) April 1951
(D) July 1954
Ans : (C)

137. The least integer when multiplied by 588 becomes a perfect square is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

138. Human Development Index is calculated by taking into account—
(A) Longevity of life
(B) Educational attainment
(C) The standard of living
(D) All of these components
Ans : (D)

139. If a person purchases shares in an Indian company, they will become long term capital asset if he holds them for—
(A) More than 24 months
(B) More than 36 months
(C) More than 12 months
(D) More than 18 months
Ans : (C)

140. In which year the capital of India was shifted from Kolkata to Delhi ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1911
(C) 1931
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)

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101. Every person appointed to be the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, before he enters upon his office, shall make an oath according to the form set out for the purpose specified in the—
(A) Second Schedule
(B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Sixth Schedule
Ans : (C)

102. Rains caused by thunderstorms in Karnataka during the ‘hot weather season’ is known as ……
(A) Mango showers
(B) Kalbaisakhi
(C) Chery blossoms
(D) Loo
Ans : (A)

103. In which year All India Muslim League was founded ?
(A) 1906
(B) 1919
(C) 1937
(D) 1940
Ans : (A)

104. Which of the following is a way to create secret reserve ?
(A) Not showing a liability
(B) Showing increased value of goodwill
(C) Showing contingent liability as actual
(D) Charging less depreciation on fixed asset
Ans : (C)

105. Lord Buddha achieved Mahaparinirvana at the age of 80 at—
(A) Lumbini
(B) Kapilabastu
(C) Bodh Gaya
(D) Kushinagar
Ans : (C)

106. In Indian Constitution, Directive Principles are mentioned in—
(A) Part-I
(B) Part-II
(C) Part-III
(D) Part-IV
Ans : (D)

107. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
(A) Green revolution is limited to few crops only
(B) The gains of green revolution are limited to selected parts of India
(C) Green revolution has benefited the small and marginal farmers
(D) Green revolution has increased economic disparity among farmers
Ans : (C)

108. Who was the author of ‘India Wins Freedom’ ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

109. The Eleventh Five-Year Plan aims at raising the rate of growth of industrial sector to—
(A) 10%
(B) 14%
(C) 16%
(D) 20%
Ans : (A)

110. The internal auditor of a company is appointed by—
(A) The Shareholders
(B) The Central Government
(C) The long term lenders
(D) The Board of Directors
Ans : (D)

111. India is traversed by the—
(A) Equator
(B) Prime Meridian
(C) Tropic of Cancer
(D) Tropic of Capricorn
Ans : (C)

112. At Break Even Point—
(A) Fixed cost equals total variable cost
(B) Average fixed cost equals average revenue
(C) Total sale equals total cost
(D) Marginal cost equals marginal revenue
Ans : (C)

113. The Indian Aluminium Co. Ltd. has its rolling mill at …….
(A) Muri
(B) Belur
(C) Alwaye
(D) Belgaum
Ans : (B)

114. Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha—
(A) Not more than one month
(B) Not more than one week
(C) Not more than 14 days
(D) Not more than two months
Ans : (C)

115. Who was the first woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Anne Besant
(B) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Aruna Asaf Ali
Ans : (A)

116. Which of the following countries produces the highest percentage of its electrical energy from nuclear reactors ?
(A) France
(B) Russia
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

117. The Eleventh Finance Commission submitted its supplementary report in—
(A) August 2000
(B) July 2001
(C) September 2001
(D) January 2002
Ans : (A)

118. …… is the most urbanised State of India (2001 Census).
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Mizoram
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Goa
Ans : (D)

119. Fees of a director are chargeable under the head—
(A) Salaries
(B) Income from business or profession
(C) Income from other sources
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

120. Black soil is most suitable for which of the following crops ?
(A) Rice
(B) Cotton
(C) Jute
(D) Wheat
Ans : (B)

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81. The proportion of ST population to total population is highest in …….
(A) M. P.
(B) Manipur
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

82. The Planning Commission was constituted by the Government of India and its Chairman was—
(A) Gulzarilal Nanda
(B) Ballavbhai Patel
(C) Jagjiwan Ram
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (D)

83. Which one of the following is most likely to occur if the Reserve Bank of India lowers the Cash Reserve Ratio ?
(A) An increase in aggregate savings
(B) A rise in Budget Deficit
(C) A rise in aggregate money supply
(D) A rise in the use of Credit Cards
Ans : (C)

84. Which of the following incidents marked the beginning of the Turkish rule in India ?
(A) First attack of Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Attack of Muhammad Ghori
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

85. Which of the following transactions are not entered in journal proper ?
(A) Dishonour of bills
(B) Rectification of errors
(C) Issue of shares
(D) Sales return
Ans : (B)

86. Almost 98% reserves of barites are found in …….
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

87. Which incident forced Gandhiji to call for the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 ?
(A) Mob violence in Chauri Chaura
(B) Jallianwallabag Massacre
(C) Chittagong Armoury Raid
(D) Foundation of Swaraj Party
Ans : (A)

88. What is Din-i-Ilahi ?
(A) A mosque set-up by Akbar
(B) A religious book
(C) A religious prayer
(D) A religious path laid down by Akbar, The Great Mughal
Ans : (D)

89. State Governments and Central Government, both can make laws on matters enshrined in—
(A) Central List
(B) Concurrent List
(C) State List
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

90. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was given by—
(A) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)

91. Since the commencement of the Indian Constitution, the number of Finance Commission constituted was—
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 12
(D) 14
Ans : (C)

92. The river Tapti flows into the—
(A) Palk Straits
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) Indian Ocean
Ans : (C)

93. The older alluvium of the Ganga plains is known as ……….
(A) Khadar
(B) Bhabar
(C) Bhangar
(D) Kallar
Ans : (C)

94. Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal ?
(A) David Hare
(B) Sir William Jones
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Sir East Hyde
Ans : (B)

95. The company auditor prepares his report for the—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Board of Directors
(C) Central Government
Ans : (B)

96. Which one of the following is India’s largest private sector bank ?
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Axis Bank
(D) Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation
Ans : (B)

97. The Regur soil has been derived from the …… rocks.
(A) granites
(B) basaltic lava
(C) gneiss
(D) limestones
Ans : (B)

98. What is the main aim of ‘Swaraj Party’ ?
(A) To start non-cooperation movement
(B) To enter Legislative Council for Wrecking from within
(C) To make a demand for a new constitution
(D) To get complete freedom for India
Ans : (D)

99. On what basis the seats of Lok Sabha are distributed among the Indian States ?
(A) Population
(B) Area and Resources
(C) Area, Resources and Population
(D) Efficient Management of Finances
Ans : (A)

100. How many types of emergency have been mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

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61. GAAP stands for—
(A) General Accounting and Auditing Procedure
(B) Generally Accepted Accounting Procedure
(C) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(D) General Auditing and Accounting Principles
Ans : (C)

62. Which of the following teams won the Ranji Trophy in 2008 ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

63. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag of India ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 16
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

64. At the suggestion of the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission Mr. Lakadwala at the time of Janata Party Government, a new type of Plan called Rolling Plan was launched from—
(A) January, 1978
(B) March, 1978
(C) April, 1978
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

65. The Pong Dam has been constructed on …… river.
(A) The Beas
(B) The Chenub
(C) The Ravi
(D) The Shutlej
Ans : (A)

66. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission for Central Government employees ?
(A) K. G. Balakrishnan
(B) A. M. Ahmadi
(C) R. C. Lahoti
(D) B. N. Srikrishna
Ans : (D)

67. Where was Buddha born ?
(A) Rajagriha
(B) Magadha
(C) Kosala
(D) Lumbini
Ans : (D)

68. Number of MPs to Lok Sabha from West Bengal are—
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 41
Ans : (A)

69. The cost formulae recommended by IAS-2 to value inventories are—
(A) FIFO or weighted average
(B) Standard cost
(C) NIFO or latest purchase price
Ans : (A)

70. Which is the first country to sign a Civil Nuclear Agreement with India on September, 2008 putting an end to its over three decades of isolation in the nuclear energy ?
(A) France
(B) United Kingdom
(C) China
(D) Russia
Ans : (A)

71. The Jataka tales are Stories about the lives of—
(A) The Bodhisattvas
(B) The Jain teachers
(C) The Vedic saints
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following rivers does not fall into the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) The Pennar
(B) The Paira
(C) The Krishna
(D) The Sharavati
Ans : (D)

73. Pre-incorporation profit is an example of—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Secret Reserve
(C) Revenue Reserve
(D) Statutory Reserve
Ans : (A)

74. ‘Bird’s Nest’ is the name of a—
(A) Stadium in Beijing
(B) Bird sanctuary in Bharatpur
(C) Spot known for eco-tourism near Colombo
(D) Famous building in New York
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following scientists and mathematicians belonged to the Gupta period ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Varahamihira
(C) Both of them
(D) Neither of them
Ans : (C)

76. Seventh Five-Year Plan was launched in—
(A) April, 1985
(B) August, 1986
(C) June, 1986
(D) November, 1985
Ans : (A)

77. In the arid Western part of India, Dhands are ……
(A) Narrow Depressions
(B) Small hills
(C) Pediments
(D) Alkaline lakes
Ans : (C)

78. A country is said to be going through an economic recession if there is a sustained decline in its GDP for two consecutive—
(A) Months
(B) Quarters
(C) Years
(D) Decades
Ans : (D)

79. Which country influenced Gandhara art ?
(A) China
(B) Greece
(C) Rome
(D) Egypt
Ans : (B)

80. Art. 14 of the Indian Constitution is related to—
(A) Right to equality
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Governor
Ans : (A)

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41. Best judgment assessment under the I.T. Act, 1961 can be done by—
(A) Assessee
(B) Assessing Officer
(C) Employer
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

42. Ten Degree channel is situated between ……
(A) North & South Andaman
(B) Middle & South Andaman
(C) Little Andaman & Nicobor Islands
(D) India and Sri Lanka
Ans : (C)

43. Salman Rushdie won the Best of Booker Prize in 2008 for his novel—
(A) Beneath Her Feet
(B) The Moor’s Last Sigh
(C) Shalimar The Clown
(D) Midnight’s Children
Ans : (D)

44. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as watch-dog on departmental expenditure and irregularities ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Committee on Public Undertakings
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Committee on Public Assurances
Ans : (C)

45. Cooking gas supplied in cylinders is in the form of—
(A) Liquid
(B) Gas
(C) Solid
(D) A solution
Ans : (A)

46. If at an annual general meeting no auditor is appointed or reappointed, the auditor can be appointed by—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Secretary
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

47. The estimated Fiscal Deficit in the Union Interim Budget, 2009 has been placed at—
(A) 4.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 5.5%
(D) 6%
Ans : (C)

48. Rovers’ Cup is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey
(D) Football
Ans : (D)

49. Rourkela Steel Plant is located at the confluence of Sankya and …… rivers.
(A) Koel
(B) Subarnarekha
(C) Damodar
(D) Dulung
Ans : (A)

50. The Chief Guest on India’s 60th Republic Day held on January 26, 2009 was the President of—
(A) Uzbekistan
(B) Kyrgyzstan
(C) Tajikistan
(D) Kazakhstan
Ans : (D)

51. The Planning Commission was constituted by a resolution of Government of India on—
(A) June 20, 1951
(B) March 15, 1950
(C) July 30, 1950
(D) September 15, 1951
Ans : (B)

52. In which part of the Indian Constitution, citizenship is referred ?
(A) Part-I
(B) Part-II
(C) Part-III
(D) Part-IV
Ans : (D)

53. The Lok Sabha which was elected in 2004 is—
(A) The 12th Lok Sabha
(B) The 13th Lok Sabha
(C) The 14th Lok Sabha
(D) The 15th Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

54. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission ?
(A) C. Rangarajan
(B) V. L. Kelkar
(C) A. M. Khusroo
(D) R. Chelliah
Ans : (B)

55. The ‘Nandadevi Himal’ feeds the …… glaciers.
(A) Pindari
(B) Siachen
(C) Gangotri
(D) Hispar
Ans : (C)

56. Eleventh Five-Year Plan covers the period from—
(A) 2003 to 2008
(B) 2007 to 2012
(C) 2002 to 2007
(D) 2005 to 2010
Ans : (B)

57. Who presides over meetings of Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Speaker
Ans : (B)

58. Who is the newly elected Vice-President of USA ?
(A) Hillary Clinton
(B) Sara Palin
(C) John McCain
(D) Joseph Biden
Ans : (D)

59. Who is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces of India ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Union Defence Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

60. Tamil and Malayalam languages belong to …… linguistic family.
(A) Aryan
(B) Dravidian
(C) Austric
(D) Mongolean
Ans : (B)

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26. Which of the following countries denied Dalai Lama a visa to attend a peace conference with other Nobel laureates ?
(A) Iran
(B) South Africa
(C) Russia
(D) Mongolia
Ans : (B)

27. Abul-Fajal lived during the period of—
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Babar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Akbar
Ans : (D)

28. In terms of irrigation, which of the following States strikes a balance between all types ?
(A) Punjab
(B) U.P.
(C) Karnataka
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)

29. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

30. The film Slumdog Millionaire which won the ‘Best Film’ award at the 81st Academy Awards is based on a novel by—
(A) Khuswant Singh
(B) Anita Deshai
(C) Danny Boyle
(D) Vikash Swarup
Ans : (D)

31. The film ‘Unishe April’ was directed by—
(A) Rituparna Ghose
(B) Aparna Sen
(C) Mrinal Sen
(D) Gautam Ghose
Ans : (A)

32. The articles where Right to Freedom of Religion is mentioned are—
(A) Art. 12-19
(B) Art. 19-21
(C) Art. 25-28
(D) Art. 21-28
Ans : (C)

33. The rural settlements of Kerala are mostly ……
(A) Compact
(B) Dispersed
(C) Linear
(D) Agglomerated
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following pairs won the Mixed Doubles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Championships, 2009?
(A) Cara Black and Leander Paes
(B) Sania Mirza and Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Nathalie Dechy and Andy Ram
(D) Liezel Huber and Jamie Murray
Ans : (B)

35. The disease ‘beri beri’ is caused by the deficiency of—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iron
(C) Vitamin B
(D) Iodine
Ans : (C)

36. The Central Government gives grants-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India on the basis of recommendation of the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Estimates Committee
Ans : (B)

37. The Barren and Narcondam islands are—
(A) Of volcanic origin
(B) Sub-marine ridges
(C) Coral reefs
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

38. To which place did Tata Motors decide to shift the Nano Project from Singur ?
(A) Pithampur
(B) Pune
(C) Pantnagar
(D) Sanand
Ans : (D)

39. In Parliamentary system the Executive is responsible—
(A) Directly to the people
(B) To the legislature
(C) To the judiciary
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

40. ‘Baking Powder’ is—
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Baker’s yeast
Ans : (B)

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By selling a plot of land for Rs. 4,50,000 a person losses 10%. To gain 15%, the selling price will be–
(A) Rs. 5,00,000 (B) Rs. 5,25,000
(C) Rs. 6,00,000 (D) Rs. 5,75,000
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following is a scalar quantity ?
(A) Momentum (B) Mass
(C) Weight (D) Force
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Shylock’ character is created by–
(A) P. B. Shelley (B) John Milton
(C) Shakespeare (D) Byron
Ans : (C)

4. Shakiraa is associated with–
(A) Sports (B) Pop Music
(C) Politics (D) Social Service
Ans : (B)

5. The Muslim brotherhood is the political organisation of which country ?
(A) Tunisia (B) Egypt
(C) Libya (D) Saudi Arabia
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following does not match ?
(A) Mohiniattam – Kerala (B) Chhow – Purulia
(C) Kuchipudi – Andhra Pradeshs (D) Dandiya – Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

7. If X : Y = 4 : 7, the ratio of 21X + 2Y : 7X + 4Y is–
(A) 7: 4 (B) 3: 8
(C) 2: 9 (D) 1: 4
Ans : (A)

8. A swimming pool can be filled by 2 pipes together in 6 hours. If the longer pipe alone takes 5 hours less than the smaller to fill the pool, the time in which the longer pipe alone would fill the pool is–
(A) 9 hours (B) 10 hours
(C) 6 hours (D) 8.5 hours
Ans : (B)

9. Nightblindness is due to the lack of which vitamin ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) K
Ans : (A)

10. A temperature of 300°C corresponds to an absolute temperature in Kelvin unit of–
(A) 27 (B) – 27
(C) 523(D) 573
Ans : (D)

11. ‘Godfather’ was written by–
(A) V. S. Naipal (B) Guntr Grass
(C) Mario Pujo (D) Erich Segal
Ans : (C)

12. Unit of frequency is–
(A) kg-m (B) see
(C) hertz (D) cm / sec2
Ans : (C)

13. Who won the World Chess Championship in 2012 ?
(A) Vishwanathan Anand (B) Gary Kasparov
(C) Vladimir Kramnik (D) Anatoly Karpov
Ans : (A)

14. Name the telescope from NASA that recently discovered 26 new planets–
(A) Galileo Telescope (B) Copernicus Telescope
(C) Kepler Telescope (D) Bose Telescope
Ans : (C)

15. Name one famous poet of the Delhi Sultanate who was adorned with the title of ‘The Parrot of Hindustan’–
(A) Zia-uddin Barani (B) Utbi
(C) Alberuni (D) Amir Khusro
Ans : (D)

16. Which of the following is an ore of aluminium?
(A) Haematite (B) Dolomite
(C) Bauxite (D) Carnalite
Ans : (C)

17. The value of a car is Rs. 3,00,000 at present. If the value depreciates 10% in the first year, 8% in the 2nd year and 5% in the 3rd year, the depreciated value after 3 years will be–
(A) Rs. 2,00,000 (B) Rs. 2,35,000
(C) Rs. 2,40,000 (D) Rs. 2,35,980
Ans : (D)

18. Who is the founder of Facebook ?
(A) Bill Gates (B) Mark Zuckerberg
(C) Steve Jobs (D) Narayan Murti
Ans : (B)

19. ‘Crime and Punishment’ was written by–
(A) Henry James (B) Joseph Conrad
(C) Dostoevsky (D) Boris Pasternak
Ans : (C)

20. A man sells two watches at Rs. 99 each. On one he gains 10% and on the other he losses 10%. His loss or gain per cent on the whole transaction is–
(A) Loss 1% (B) Loss 5%
(C) Profit 1%(D) Profit 5%
Ans : (A)

21. The petroleum price in India was completely deregulated according to the recommendations of which committee?
(A) Kirit Parekh Committee (B) Y. K. Alagh Committee
(C) Satish Chandra Committee (D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
Ans : (A)

22. Which is the most expensive city in the world today?
(A) Tokyo (B) Melbourne
(C) Zurich (D) Washington
Ans : (A)

23. Who was the Director of ‘Aparajito’ ?
(A) Sandip Ray (B) Satyajit Ray
(C) Sukumar Ray (D) Tapan Singha
Ans : (B)

24. Enzymes are organic compounds of protein category which–
(A) act as catalysts in life processes
(B) help in the mechanism of supply of oxygen in blood
(C) help to regulate the manner and rate of use of glucose in body
(D) help in heredity maintenance
Ans : (A)

25. The cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles. The profit per cent is–
(A) 20% (B) 15%
(C) 30% (D) 25%
Ans : (D)

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26. Which party-led government became the first civilian government in Pakistan to last for 5 years?
(A) Jamiat Ulema-e-Pakistan (B) Pakistan People’s Party
(C) Pakistan Qaurni Party (D) Pakistan Muslim League
Ans : (B)

27. ‘Survival of the fittest’ was coined by–
(A) Darwin (B) Lamarch
(C) Mendel (D) Viseman
Ans : (A)

28. Which country is the largest importer of Gold?
(A) USA (B) France
(C) Germany (D) India
Ans : (D)

29. The Supreme Court consists of–
(A) One Chief Justice and 18 other Judges
(B) One Chief Justice and 25 other Judges
(C) One Chief Justice and 26 other Judges
(D) One Chief Justice and 30 other Judges
Ans : (D)

30. Firoja Begum is associated with–
(A) Acting (B) Nazrul-Geeti
(C) Social Service (D) Politics
Ans : (B)

31. Haemoglobin is–
(A) a copper compound (B) a cobalt compound
(C) a magnesium compound (D) an iron compound
Ans : (D)

32. A man donated 4% of his income to a charity and deosited 10% of the rest in a bank. He now has Rs. 10,800. His income is–
(A) Rs. 12,500 (B) Rs. 18,500
(C) Rs. 12,000 (D) Rs. 10,900
Ans : (A)

33. Article 309 empowers Parliament and State Legislatures–
(A) To regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of the Public Services of the Union and the States respectively
(B) To deal with powers and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(C) To deal with Indian Foreign Service
(D) To regulate Income-tax Officers (Class I) Service
Ans : (A)

34. Which country is going to host the Winter Olympic Games 2014 ?
(A) USA (B) U. K.
(C) Russia (D) Canada
Ans : (C)

35. ‘Arogya Niketan’ is composed by–
(A) Tarashankar Bandyopadhyaya (B) Kalidas Nag
(C) Gokul Nag (D) Subodh Ghosh
Ans : (A)

36. Soaps are–
(A) sodium and potassium salts of higher fatty acids (B) sodium salts of sulphonic acids
(C) high molecular mass alcohols (D) mixtures of glycerol and phenol
Ans : (A)

37. Which Parliamentary Committee considers matters of procedure and conduct of business?
(A) The Rules Committee (B) Business Advisory Committee
(C) Ad Hoc Committees (D) Financial Committees
Ans : (A)

38. A sum lent on simple interest becomes Rs. 2520 in 2 years and Rs. 2700 in 5 years. The principal sum is–
(A) Rs. 2400 (B) Rs. 2000
(C) Rs. 2500 (D) Rs. 2600
Ans : (A)

39. The metal first discovered by man is–
(A) iron (B) copper
(C) aluminium (D) gold
Ans : (B)

40. The Governor-General who decided in favour of Western Education in India–
(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Ripon (D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)

41. When can ordinances be issued by the President?
(A) When Parliament is not in session (B) During emergency
(C) When Parliament is in session (D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

42. Name the Pakistani female education activist who became a victim of the Taliban recently–
(A) Hina Rabbani Khar (B) Malala Yousufzai
(C) Benazir Yousufzai (D) Attia Bano Qamar
Ans : (B)

43. Who was the General of Sher Shah ?
(A) Brahmajit Gaur (B) Dillr Khan
(C) Shaye tha Khan (D) Jai Singh
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic ?
(A) N2, CO (B) NO, CO
(C) CO, CN– (D) O2, CN–
Ans : (C)

45. Article 14 of the Constitution of India ensures–
(A) Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (B) Right to freedom
(C) Right to religion (D) Right to constitutional remedies
Ans : (A)

46. Name the country that lost 30 Footballers and Officials in an aircrash in 1993–
(A) Russia (B) Venezuela
(C) Zambia (D) Somalia
Ans : (C)

47. Who wrote ‘Nil Darpan’ ?
(A) Madhusudan Dutta (B) Dinabandhu Mitra
(C) Harish Chandra Mukherjee (D) Kali Prasanna Singha
Ans : (B)

48. When chlorine reacts with excess of ammonia, the product are–
(A) NH4Cl, NCl3 (B) N2, NH4Cl
(C) NCl3.HCl (D) N2HCl
Ans : (B)

49. Right to Freedom is ensured in the Indian Constitution under Article–
(A) 23 (B) 25
(C) 18 (D) 19
Ans : (D)

50. The ratio of wages of two labours is 4 : 3. If the wages of the first be decreased by Rs. 9 and that of the second be increased by Rs. 9, the ratio of the wages will be reverse ratio as it was a first. Determine the wages of first labour–
(A) Rs. 27 (B) Rs. 36
(C) Rs. 42 (D) Rs. 48
Ans : (B)

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11. Capsule of Tenon is associated with—
(A) Eyeball
(B) Brain
(C) Skin
(D) Kidney
Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following law is associated with the fact that anterior spinal nerve roots contain only motor fibres and posterior roots only sensory fibres ?
(A) Magendie’s law
(B) Bell’s law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. In birds—
(A) Left oviduct and right aortic arch are present
(B) Left oviduct and left aortic arch are present
(C) Right oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
(D) Left oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
Ans : (B)

14. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during—
(A) Devonian period
(B) Carboniferous period
(C) Jurassic period
(D) Cretaceous period
Ans : (B)

15. Community health services involves—
(A) Control of communicable diseases
(B) School and health education
(C) Awareness of clean environment
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

16. The active rolling over of endodermal and mesodermal cells from the embryo surface into the interior is defined as—
(A) Ingression
(B) Involution
(C) Epiboly
(D) Inversion
Ans : (B)

17. The wall of heart is made up of—
(A) Epicardium
(B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

18. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by—
(A) Height of individual
(B) Colour of individual
(C) Screening procedures
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by intestinal mucosa that remain closely associated with the microvilli ?
(A) Peptidase
(B) Disaccharidase
(C) Trypsin
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is absorbed by intestinal mucosa by active transport ?
(A) Galactose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

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MAHADISCOM Recruitment 2017 – Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Company Limited – 2542 Upkendra Sahayyak Vacancies Exam

A starving person consumes first—
(A) Body fats
(B) Body proteins
(C) Vitamins
(D) Stored glycogen
Ans : (D)

2. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is—
(A) Cross bridges
(B) Sarcomeres
(C) Myofibril
(D) Z-band
Ans : (B)

3. Globular proteins undergo structural changes in response to extremes of pH or temperature, is called—
(A) Renaturation
(B) Denaturation
(C) Combination
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (B)

4. The study of relationships between size and shape is known as—
(A) Allometry
(B) Heterochrony
(C) Isometry
(D) Allochrony
Ans : (A)

5. A localised tumour covered by connective tissue is called—
(A) Metastasis
(B) Neoplasm
(C) Benign tumour
(D) Malignant tumour
Ans : (C)

6. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
(A) Rh+ individuals
(B) Rh individuals
(C) AB blood group individuals
(D) O blood group individuals
Ans : (A)

7. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an infant’s skull is called—
(A) Suture
(B) Fontanel
(C) Ligament
(D) Fascia
Ans : (B)

8. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to the presence of—
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Ca++
(D) Mg++
Ans : (A)

9. Staph food poisoning is related with—
(A) Salmonella bacteria
(B) Clostridium bacteria
(C) Staphylococcus bacteria
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Capacitation is—
(A) Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa
(B) Final stage in fertilization
(C) Maturation of ovum
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

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  1. Auditor shall be punished with imprisonment for a maximum period of ……… under Section 539 for falsification in the books of accounts.
    (A) 3 years
    (B) 5 years
    (C) 7 years
    (D) 9 years
    Ans : (C)

    92. “Auditor is not an insurer.” In which of the following cases, the decision has been given ?
    (A) The Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. (1986)
    (B) London & General Bank (1895)
    (C) Allen Craig & Co. Ltd. (1934)
    (D) Irish Woollen Co. Ltd.
    Ans : (B)

    93. The Section 80A of the Companies’ Act is related with the redemption of—
    (A) Debentures
    (B) Redeemable preference shares
    (C) Irredeemable preference shares
    (D) None of the above
    Ans : (C)

    94. Company Auditor is responsible—
    (A) For directors
    (B) For shareholders
    (C) For public
    (D) For creditors
    Ans : (B)

    95. In Balance Sheet, Audit Accounts are audited—
    (A) Monthly
    (B) Bi-monthly
    (C) Annually or half yearly
    (D) Quarterly
    Ans : (C)

    96. Audit adopted by banking company is—
    (A) Continuous Audit
    (B) Periodical Audit
    (C) Internal Audit
    (D) Balance Sheet Audit
    Ans : (A)

    97. Which of the following have lien of Company Auditor ?
    (A) Books of Accounts of the Company
    (B) Vouchers of the Company
    (C) Auditor’s working paper
    (D) All of the above
    Ans : (C)

    98. To appoint new auditor in place of retiring auditor, to adopt the procedure, which section of Companies’ Act, 1956 is applicable ?
    (A) 223
    (B) 224
    (C) 225
    (D) 226
    Ans : (B)

    99. “A company has a separate legal existence from its members.” This principle was first laid down in case of—
    (A) Saloman Vs. Saloman & Co. Ltd. (1897)
    (B) Daimler Co. Ltd. Vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (1916)
    (C) State of U. P. Vs. Renu Sagar Power Co. (1991)
    (D) Santunu Roy Vs. Union of India (1989)
    Ans : (A)

    100. According to ownership, Government Company means ……… share.
    (A) Whose paid-up share capital’s 48%, shares are owned by Government
    (B) Whose paid-up share capital’s 49% shares are owned by Government
    (C) Whose paid-up share capital’s 50% shares are owned by Government
    (D) Whose paid-up share capital’s 51% shares are owned by Government
    Ans : (D)

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61. Current Ratio is 3•75, Acid Test Ratio is 1•25 Stock Rs. 3,75,000, calculate working capital.
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 4,12,500
(D) Rs. 4,25,000
Ans : (C)

62. From the information given below, calculate Debt service coverage Ratio—
Net profit after interest and Tax Rs. 40,000, Depreciation Rs. 5,000, Rate of Income Tax 50%, 10% Mortgage Debentures Rs. 60,000. Fixed Interest Charges Rs. 6,000, Debenture Redemption Fund Appropriation of Outstanding Debentures 10%.
(A) 4•06 times
(B) 5•06 times
(C) 6•06 times
(D) 7•06 times
Ans : (A)

63. Share premium account can be used for—
(A) Paying tax liability
(B) Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
(C) Paying Dividend on shares
(D) Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Ans : (B)

64. Ploughing-back of profits means—
(A) Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
(B) Non-declaration of dividend in any year
(C) Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
(D) Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Ans : (D)

65. As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be—
(A) Added to paid up capital
(B) Deducted from called up capital
(C) Added to capital reserve
(D) Shown as a revenue reserve
Ans : (B)

66. A company invited application for subscription of 5,000 shares. The application were received for 6,000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis. If X has applied for 180 shares how many shares would be allotted to him ?
(A) 180 shares
(B) 200 shares
(C) 150 shares
(D) 175 shares
Ans : (C)

67. Consider the following information pertaining to K Ltd. on September 4, 2005, the company issued 12,000 7% debentures having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2•5%. On September 12, the company issued 25,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend @ 6% p.a. thereon. Bank balance on August 31, 2005 was Rs. 30,00,000. After effecting the above transaction, the Bank Balance as on September 30, 2005 will be—
(A) Rs. 35,15,000
(B) Rs. 33,80,000
(C) Rs. 33,45,000
(D) Rs. 35,05,000
Ans : (A)

68. The balance appearing in the books of a company at the end of year were CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security Premium Rs. 5,000, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20,000, P & L A/c (Dr) Rs. 10,000. Maximum amount available for distribution of Bonus Share will be—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 55,000
(C) Rs. 45,000
(D) Rs. 57,000
Ans : (B)

69. R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by—
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 5,00,000
(C) Rs. 3,20,000
(D) Rs. 4,80,000
Ans : (A)

70. Depletion method of depreciation is used in case of—
(A) Cattle, Loose Tools, etc.
(B) Mines, Quarries, etc.
(C) Machinery, Building, etc.
(D) Books
Ans : (B)

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BSNL Recruitment 2016 – 2017, 2510 Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Posts, Apply Online, Notification Details, Call Letter, Admit Card, Result are available at www.bsnl.co.in

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) invites the Application Form from eligible candidates for the recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Posts, further details are given below.

Recruitment for Graduate Engineer to the post of Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) in BSNL from Open Market through valid GATE Score – 2017

Advertisement No. 12-2/2016-Rectt

Name of Organization: Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL Recruitment 2016 – 2017)

Total Number of Vacancies: 2510 Posts

Name of Posts:
Junior Telecom Officer (JTO): 2510 Posts

Scale of Pay: Rs. 16400-40500

Age Limit: 18 to 30 Years (Relaxation in age for SC/ST/OBC candidates as per Govt guidelines)

Educational Qualification and Experience Details: Candidate must have BE / B.Tech or equivalent in Telecom / Electronics / Radio / Computer / Electrical / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering or M.Sc (Electronics) / M.Sc (Computer Science) are required to appear GATE exam 2017, opting one paper from selected four disciplines of GATE paper codes i.e. CS & IT/ EC/EE/ & IN

Application Fee: Rs.1000/- for OBC Category (Rs.500/- for SC/ST)

How to Apply: All eligible and interested candidates are required to apply http://www.externalexam.bsnl.co.in website online form from 01-01-2017 to 31-01-2017

Important date:

Last Date of GATE 2017:  04/10/2016

Start Date for Online filling of Application form: 01/01/2017
Last Date for Online filling of Application form: 31/01/2017

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UPPCL Recruitment 2017 – Group C Office-Assistant/Steno 2585 Posts Exam

80. Which of the following have caused the growth of cooperative federalism in India ?
1. Union-State collaboration in economic matters
2. Union-State legislative relations
3. Compulsion of development finance
4. Dynamics of electoral politics
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Content — Schedule in the Constitution of India
(A) Languages — Eighth Schedule
(B) The forms of oaths or affirmations — Second Schedule
(C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States — Fourth Schedule
(D) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection — Tenth Schedule
Ans : (B)

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
(a) Taxes belonging to the Union exclusively
(b) Taxes belonging to the State exclusively
(c) Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States
(d) Duties levied as well as collected by the Union but assigned to the State
1. Sales tax
2. Customs
3. Excise duties on medicinal preparation
4. Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Articles 64 and 89(1) of the Constitution of India provide that the Vice-President of India shall be Ex-officio
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
2. There is no such office as that of the Vice-President of India in other parliamentary systems of Governments in Commonwealth countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

84. Consider the following statements—
1. Interest aggregation is the activity in which the political demands of individuals and groups are combined
into policy programmes.
2. Large nations usually develop more specialized organisations for the specific purpose of aggregating interests and resources behind a policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

85. Which one of the following judgements stated that secularism and federalism are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(B) S. R. Bommai Case
(C) Indira Sawhney Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Ans : (A)

86. Consider the following statements—
1. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the chairman and members of statutory bodies
at his discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

87. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House ?
(A) Article 84
(B) Article 85
(C) Article 87
(D) Article 88
Ans : (D)

88. Which one of the following is not associated with the duties of the Prime Minister ?
(A) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(B) To recommend to the President about the decision that a particular Bill may be certified as Money Bill
(C) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislations as the President may call for
(D) If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister which has not been considered by the Council
Ans : (B)

89. The Kamraj Plan proposed—
(A) priority to agriculture over industry
(B) inducting senior leaders to party work
(C) election to all party offices
(D) an overhaul of the Congress Working Committee
Ans : (D)

90. Consider the following statements—
1. The representation of women in the Lok Sabha (up to 14th) has never exceeded 10 per cent of the total
2. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

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71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
State — No. of Members in the Rajya Sabha
(A) Maharashtra — 19
(B) Tamil Nadu — 18
(C) Bihar — 18
(D) West Bengal — 16
Ans : (C)

72. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body ?
(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(B) National Commission for Minorities
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (A)

73. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ?
1. By birth
2. By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalization
5. By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 3, 4 and 4 only
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51A of the Constitution ?
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 4 and 5
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following are considered as basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
1. Republican and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes give below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)

76. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development
plan, as recommended by such a Committee ?
(A) The Planning Commission
(B) The Finance Minister, Government of India
(C) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
(D) The Government of the State
Ans : (D)

77. Consider the following statements—
The Sarkaria Commission recommended :
1. the overlapping membership between Planning Commission and Finance Commission
2. that experts with established reputation for professional integrity be appointed to the Planning Commission
3. that centrally sponsored schemes should be kept to the minimum
4. that States should not be involved in the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

78. Under which of the following regimes was the Inter-State Council (ISC) set up ?
(A) Congress Government in 1975
(B) Janata Government in 1978
(C) Janata Dal led Government in 1990
(D) United Front Government in 1996
Ans : (C)

79. Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create—
(A) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(B) 16 States and 5 Union Territories
(C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(D) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans : (C)

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61. In the US House of Representatives, the second reading of a Bill is undertaken in which one of the following Committees ?
(A) Select Committee
(B) Standing Committee
(C) Conference Committee
(D) Committee of the Whole House
Ans : (B)

62. When the Senate of the United States sits for a trial for impeachment of the US President, the House is presided over by the—
(A) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) President of the House
(C) Vice-President of the United States
(D) Senator representing the largest province of the United States
Ans : (A)

63. In several States of the US, the Jim Crow Legislation was responsible for—
(A) segregation of different communities
(B) reparations for previously segregated communities
(C) common schools for blacks and whites
(D) ban of civil rights movement
Ans : (C)

64. The final outcome of the French presidential election is on the completion of (run of election) second ballot among—
(A) all the candidates
(B) top two candidates
(C) top three candidates
(D) top four candidates
Ans : (B)

65. Consider the following statements—
The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless :
1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a 7 days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1
4th of the total number of members of that House
2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2 3rd of the total membership of that House
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

66. During the cultural revolution in China, public security organs known as workers provost corps were created for which of the following ?
1. Dealing with counter-revolutionary activities
2. Keeping surveillance over the activities of the Red Guard
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

67. The National Assembly of South Africa, by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of at least two-thirds of its members, can remove the President from the office on which of the following grounds ?
1. Serious violation of the Constitution or the Law
2. Serious misconduct
3. Moral corruption
4. Inability to perform the functions of the office
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following are included in the Right to Privacy under the Constitution of South Africa ?
Right not to have :
1. person or home searched
2. property searched
3. possession seized
4. privacy of their communication infringed
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (D)

69. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions prepared the groundwork for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed classes in India ?
(A) Southborough Committee
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Nehru Committee
(D) Lothian Committee
Ans : (B)

70. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha—
1. The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1919, when in pursuance to the Government of India Act, 1919, a second chamber known as the Council of States was created.
2. The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest that Parliament may make laws with respect to a matter in the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

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51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of ‘judicial review’, which means the power to—
(A) review the judgements of State High Courts
(B) review the functioning of the Council of Ministers
(C) advise the President of India
(D) decide the Constitutionality of an Act (or part thereof) passed by the Legislature
Ans : (D)

52. Consider the following statements—
The Supreme Court judgement in S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to mean that the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or the Chief Minister
1. at his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister in the Assembly.
2. when the Legislative Assembly has expressed its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.
3. when a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the Assembly.
4. when a censure motion against the Council of Minister has been rejected in the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following best perform the function of interest articulation in a political system ?
1. Trade unions and ethnic associations
2. Organizations of businessmen and civic groups
3. Judiciary and law-making institutions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 only
Ans : (C)

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach and Theory)
(a) Structural-Functional approach
(b) Communication theory
(c) General System theory
(d) Rational Choice
List-II (Political Scientist associated with)
1. Davi Easton
2. Karl Deutsch
3. Antony Downs
4. Gabriel Almond
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (D)

55. According to Gabriel Almond, which of the following are the basic characteristics of a system ?
1. Comprehensiveness and interdependence
2. Interdependence and existence of boundaries
3. Existence of boundaries and allocation of values
4. Allocation of values and goal attainment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following was not identified by Almond as a stage of conversion process of a political system ?
(A) Interest articulation
(B) Interest aggregation
(C) Political recruitment
(D) Rule adjudication
Ans : (D)

57. Consider the following political system—
1. Czech Republic
2. Malaysia
3. South Africa
4. Sri Lanka
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above opting to a sustained competitive electoral democracy ?
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

58. Consider the following statements—
The classification of authoritarian systems made by Almond and Powell includes
1. radical and conservative totalitarian
2. pre-mobilized authoritarian and pre-mobilized democratic
3. conservative and modernizing authoritarian
4. secularized City-States and pyramidal systems
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)

59. Consider the following—
1. Timocracy and oligarchy
2. Democracy and tyranny
3. Republics and autocracy
4. Theocracy and polity
Which of the above are included in Plato’s classification of governments ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Institutions/Units of Government)
(a) Laender
(b) Procuratorates
(c) Privy Council
(d) Commissions de modernization
List-II (Countries associated)
1. France
2. China
3. Great Britain
4. German Federal Republic
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (D)

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ILBS Recruitment 2016 Online Application Form 488 Posts Exam

41. Consider the following statements—
The New Social Movements
1. do not seek ‘total’ change
2. are not class-based
3. do not believe in direct action
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

42. Consider the following International Women’s Conferences—
1. Nairobi
2. Mexico
3. Copenhagen
4. Beijing
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above Conference ?
(A) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(B) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(D) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

43. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with the Trade Union Movement in India ?
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) K. R. Narayanan
(D) Zakir Hussain
Ans : (A)

44. Which one of the following political theorists finds the concept of ‘imagined community’ inadequate to describe nationalism in post-colonial societies ?
(A) Partha Chatterjee
(B) V. R. Mehta
(C) Hans Cohn
(D) Ernest Gellner
Ans : (A)

45. Consider the following events—
1. OPEC’s Oil Embargo
2. Accession of UK, Ireland and Denmark to the European Economic Community (EEC)
3. Demand for a New International Economic Order by developing countries in the General Assembly of the United Nations
4. Suez Crisis
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Ans : (C)

46. The key to Gramsci’s analysis of the failure of socialist revolution to take off in the West is the concept of—
(A) ideology
(B) intellectuals
(C) hegemony
(D) civil society
Ans : (C)

47. The zero-sum game as employed by the supporters of the game theory assumes that—
(A) the loss of one player is the gain of the other
(B) the loss of one player is the loss of the other as well
(C) the gain or the loss of one player has nothing to do with the gain or the loss of the other
(D) the gain of one player is the gain of the other player
Ans : (A)

48. Consider the following developments—
1. Outsourcing of services
2. Shrinking of geographical distance
3. Rise of ethnic identity
4. Emergence of regional associations
Which of the above developments are associated with globalization ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

49. The old institutional approach to the study of political and government systems lays emphasis on—
(A) they study of formal aspects of government and politics
(B) finding out principles underlying all political activites
(C) the search for regularities and for making generalizations
(D) transcendental ideals embodying different views of ‘what ought to be’
Ans : (A)

50. Which of the following statements regarding behavioural approach are correct ?
1. It is interdisciplinary in nature.
2. It is more descriptive and less empirical.
3. It is value neutral.
4. It puts emphasis on qualitative judgement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

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JUVNL Recruitment 2017 Online Application Form 710 Posts Exam

31. Consider the following—
1. Decentralization
2. Labour-intensive industry
3. Promotion of Indian languages vis-a-vis English
4. Opposition to caste system
Which of the above were the central tenets of Lohia-inspired socialism in India ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

32. Consider the following statements—
1. Truth is a subjective quality, available only to a few gifted people, whose will or spirit or personality is greater than that of the masses.
2. Non-violence is the law of our species as violence is the law of brute.
Which political ideologies are reflected in the statements 1 and 2 above respectively ?
(A) Marxism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(B) Syndicalism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(C) Fascism in 1 and Liberalism in 2
(D) Fascism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
Ans : (D)

33. Consider the following propositions—
1. Trusteeship implies making use of resources at one’s command for the welfare of all.
2. Nayee (Nai) Taleem (Basic Education) is integration of learning with work.
3. Satyagraha is holding on to truth even at one’s cost.
With which of the above propositions did Gandhi disagree ?
(A) None
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 only
(D) 3
Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas —C. F. Andrews
(B) The Gandhian Way —J. B. Kriplani
(C) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism —Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) Gandhi’s Political Philosophy —B. R. Nanda
Ans : (D)

35. Consider the following countries—
1. Sri Lanka
2. Malaysia
3. Australia
4. Canada
Which of the above countries has/have formally declared itself/themselves as multicultural ?
(A) 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Country)
(a) Egypt
(b) Nigeria
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Syria
List-II (Party)
1. National Democratic Party
2. People’s Democratic Party
3. United National Party
4. Baath Party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

37. Which one of the following was the first country-wide pressure group of the organized Indian working class ?
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Indian Mining Federation
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
Ans : (A)

38. With which one of the following is the expression ‘gift of grace’ associated ?
(A) Legal-rational authority
(B) Traditional authority
(C) Charismatic authority
(D) Autocratic authority
Ans : (C)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Exponent)
(a) Eva Balfour
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) A. G. Frank
(d) Samir Amin
List-II (Theory)
1. Stages of development
2. Centre-periphery theory
3. Environmental theory
4. Development of underdevelopment
5. Sustainable development
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 1 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 5
(C) 5 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 5
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is/are the major theme(s) of New International Economic Order (NIEO) ?
1. Self-reliance
2. Globalization and liberalization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

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