Tag: Current Affairs 2017 – 2018

MRB Tamil Nadu Recruitment 2017 Online Application Form 2804 Posts

81. How did Portuguese firstly affect Indian trade and industry ?
(A) By forcing Gujarat and Calicut to abandon construction of ships or even armed rowing boats
(B) By monopolising port-toport trade on the Malabar coast and the trade from Indian to Persian coast
(C) In both (A) and (B) ways above
(D) By dictating the prices of horses imported by native Indian powers after ousting Arabs
Ans : (B)

82. What was the occasion of handing over of Mumbai (Bombay) to Britishers by the Portuguese ?
(A) Freedom of Portuguese from the control of Spain
(B) Marriage of Charles II with the Portuguese princess Catherine of Braganza
(C) Crushing of Spanish Armada by British in 1588
(D) The Treaty of Madrid in 1630
Ans : (B)

83. What made Jahangir to issue a farman in 1613 A.D. to the English to establish a factory at Surat ?
(A) Reconciliation between the English and Portuguese
(B) A secret offer of naval help to the Mughal emperor to oust the Portuguese
(C) A heavy dose of bribe to Nur Jahan
(D) The defeat of Portuguese naval squadrons by the English
Ans : (D)

84. The Indian port(s) utilized by Dutch for their trade in India was/were—
(A) Pulicat
(B) Masulipattam
(C) Nagapattam
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

85. The founder of French East India Company for trade in India was—
(A) Colbert
(B) Francois Martin
(C) Francois Caron
(D) De La Haye
Ans : (A)

86. Where was the first Presidency of English East India Company in India ?
(A) Chennai (Madras)
(B) Masulipattam
(C) Surat
(D) Hugli
Ans : (C)

87. Aurangzeb ordered the arrest of all Englishmen and the seizure of all English factories throughout his dominion, because—
(A) The English had refused to pay local duties in Bengal
(B) The English had attacked the Mughal ships on the western coast
(C) The English were fortifying their trading stations
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

88. The English exported from Bengal—
(A) Sugar
(B) Saltpetre
(C) Silks
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

89. The immediate cause of Siraj-uddaula’s campaign against the English in 1757 was—
(A) The refusal of the English to pay taxes on their goods
(B) The levying of heavy duties by the English on Indian goods entering Kolkata (Calcutta)
(C) Additional fortification of Kolkata (Calcutta) without the permission or even the knowledge of the nawab
(D) The English taking up the cause of Shaukut Jang, a rival of Siraj-ud-daula
Ans : (A)

90. How was the control of company in Bengal legitimized ?
(A) The imperial grant of the ‘diwani’ of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa by Shah Alam II
(B) The treaty with Mir Zafar after the battle of Plassey in 1757
(C) The treaty with Mir Zafar after the battle of Buxar in 1764
(D) The treaty of February 1765 with Nizam-ud-daula
Ans : (D)

91. The first serious blow inflicted by the English on India’s handloom industry was—
(A) Duty imposed on the looms
(B) Compulsion of weavers to sell their goods on dictated prices
(C) Shortage of cotton due to export of raw-cotton
(D) Infiltration of cash crops like indigo and opium in the cottongrowing area
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following statements is not applicable to the Mahalwari settlement ?
(A) It was a permanant measure introduced as an improvement on the other two measures
(B) It was applied to each village and the estate separately
(C) The government instead of coming in contract with the cultivator made settlement with the village community as a whole
(D) It was introduced in the Gangetic valley, the Punjab and the parts of Central India
Ans : (A)

93. Which of the following statements about the new landlords is not correct ?
(A) They were town dwelling merchants and moneyed classes with no roots in the village
(B) They were free to harass the cultivators
(C) They were mere rent collecting absentee businessmen
(D) They had converted the peasants to mere cultivators by taking away their traditional rights over their land
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following reasons is not correct with regard to the decline of economy of India during English rule ?
(A) Lack of qualification and technical skill in the Indians
(B) Failure to get overseas market due to lack sea power
(C) Unprotected indigenous industry due to weak guild organizations
(D) Lack of the class of industrial enterprizers in India
Ans : (A)

95. Who first expounded the theory of ‘economic drain’ of India during the British rule ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Ramesh Chanda Dutt
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans : (C)

96. What among the following factors was not applicable to the conditions of abject poverty in India during the British rule ?
(A) Decay of Agricultural production and indigenuous industries
(B) Investment of foreign capital in India
(C) Insufficient growth of modern industries
(D) High taxation
Ans : (B)

97. Who among these was not a part of triple alliance on the eve of first Anglo-Mysore war of 1767-69 ?
(A) The English
(B) Nizam of Hyderabad
(C) The Marathas
(D) Raja of Travancore
Ans : (D)

98. Tipu Sultan was ahead of his contemporaries in many respect because—
(A) He understood the threat posed by English to the Indian powers
(B) He understood the importance of strong economic base for the military power
(C) He understood the importance of modern trade and industry
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

99. Who among the following Maratha chiefs was the last to enter into a subsidiary alliance with the English ?
(A) The Peshwas
(B) Holkar
(C) Bhonsle
(D) Scindia
Ans : (B)

100. On what condition Wellesly agreed to help Peshwa Bajirao II ?
(A) His agreeing to the abolition of the office of the Peshwa after his death
(B) An underhand transaction of Rs. 15 lakh
(C) His consent to the subsidiary alliance
(D) His agreeing to dispossess Scindia from his fief
Ans : (C)

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61. The dynasty founded by Khizr Khan is known as Sayyid dynasty because—
(A) He and his successors adopted the title Sayyid
(B) Khizr Khan belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern Turkistan
(C) Khizr Khan was the descendant of the prophet Muhammad
(D) He was a scholar of Islamic theology
Ans : (C)

62. Who were called barids ?
(A) Craftsmen working in state workshops
(B) Bodyguards of the sultan
(C) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
(D) The spy reporters
Ans : (D)

63. Who among the following officers held highest stature in the central government of the Sultanate ?
(A) Qazi-ul-Mulk
(B) Naib-i-Mulk
(C) Head of the Majlis-i-Khalawat
(D) Wazir
Ans : (B)

64. Who among the following did not act as a tax farmer ?
(A) Village headman
(B) Patwari
(C) Governor
(D) Tributary chief
Ans : (D)

65. In Early Medieval India “Dosi Hatt” was—
(A) Animal Market
(B) Meena Bazar
(C) Kapaas (Cotton) Market
(D) Slave Bazar
Ans : (C)

66. Who was the founder of independent kingdom of Gujarat ?
(A) Zafar Khan
(B) Tatar Khan
(C) Shama Khan
(D) Ahmad Shah
Ans : (A)

67. The single biggest item of import to the Vijayanagar empire was—
(A) Precious stones
(B) Horses
(C) Luxury goods
(D) Raw Silk
Ans : (B)

68. Which contemporary Mughal historian of the age of Akbar had prepared a list of charges calling him an enemy of Islam ?
(A) Badauni
(B) Niamtullah
(C) Abbas Khan Sarwani
(D) Nizamuddin Ahmad
Ans : (A)

69. Who is the writer of ‘Tabqat-i-Akbari’ ?
(A) Badauni
(B) Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Khwand Mir
Ans : (B)

70. Which famous painter among the following did not remain in the court of Akbar ?
(A) Farrukh Beg
(B) Dasawanth
(C) Aga Reza
(D) Basawan
Ans : (A)

71. Who among the following Mughal princess produced a ‘diwan’ (collection of poems) with the name ‘Makhi’ ?
(A) Humayun’s sister Gulbadan Begum
(B) Shah Jahan’s daughter Jahanara
(C) Shah Jahan’s daughter Roshanara
(D) Aurangzeb’s daughter Zibunnisa
Ans : (D)

72. Which jeweller foreign traveller of the Mughal period has left a detailed account of Takht-i-Taus (Peacock throne) ?
(A) Travernier
(B) Geronimo Verroneo
(C) ‘Omrah’ Danishmand Khan
(D) Austin of Bordeaux
Ans : (A)

73. Whom did Sher Shah appoint to provide bed and food to Hindu travellers staying at ‘Sarais’ (rest houses) ?
(A) Afghan Muslims
(B) Muslims
(C) Brahmanas
(D) Low caste Hindus
Ans : (D)

74. Which one among the following statements is not correct about the agrarian policy of Sher Shah ?
(A) Sher Shah insisted upon measurement of the sown land
(B) Sher Shah drew up schedule of rates for state’s share of the different types of crops
(C) The amount each peasant had to pay was to be written down on a paper called ‘patta’
(D) The measuring part was allowed to fix fee at their will
Ans : (D)

75. When did Aurangzeb arrive in Deccan finally to quell the revolt of Marathas ?
(A) 1681
(B) 1682
(C) 1689
(D) 1700
Ans : (C)

76. Which among the following is the most important source of information about the agrarian conditions during Mughals ?
(A) Ain-i-Akbari
(B) Akbarnama
(C) Muntakhab-ul-Lubab
(D) Tarikh-i-Ferishta
Ans : (B)

77. What portion of actual produce was fixed as the demand of the state under the ‘Zabit’ system ?
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-fifth
Ans : (B)

78. Which Maratha saint is most importantly known for social reform, national regeneration and the rise of Maratha power ?
(A) Eknath
(B) Tukaram
(C) Samartha Ramdas
(D) Vaman Pandit
Ans : (C)

79. The chief gain to Shivaji from his raids of Surat in 1664 and 1670 was—
(A) Immense increase in his prestige
(B) Demoralisation of the Mughal forces
(C) Capture of the English factory
(D) A lot of booty
Ans : (D)

80. What was the unit of measurement of land in Maratha dominion ?
(A) Kathi
(B) Tanab
(C) Jarib
(D) Daftari bigha
Ans : (A)

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41. Who is the writer of ‘Kitab-ur-Rehla’ ?
(A) Maulana Sharafuddin Ali Yazid
(B) Amir Timur
(C) Ibn-i-Batuta
(D) Khwaja Abdullah Malik Isami
Ans : (C)

42. Which of these books was authored by Sultan Feroz Shah Tughlaq himself ?
(A) Fautuhat-i-Ferozshahi
(B) Fatawa-i-Jahandari
(C) Tarikh-i-Ferozshahi
(D) Tughlaqnama
Ans : (A)

43. Which of these books is not a composition of Amir Khusrau ?
(A) Qiran-u-Sadain
(B) Tahqiq-i-Hind
(C) Miftah-ul-Futuh
(D) Nur-i-Sipihar
Ans : (B)

44. Who among the following kings formed a confederacy of Hindu kings against Mahmud of Ghazni ?
(A) Jaipala
(B) Anandapala
(C) Both Jaipala and Anandpala
(D) Anangapala
Ans : (C)

45. When did the Mahmud of Ghazni attack last on India ?
(A) 1021–22 A.D.
(B) 1024 A.D.
(C) 1025 A.D.
(D) 1027 A.D.
Ans : (D)

46. Name the Arab astronomer who studied Sanskrit and astronomy for a decade at Varanasi ?
(A) Alberuni
(B) Amir Khusrau
(C) Al’bidari
(D) Al’Masher
Ans : (A)

47. Who among the following foreign travellers did not visit Vijayanagar during the time of Krishnadeo Raya ?
(A) Nicolo Conti
(B) Fernao Nuniz
(C) Domingo Paes
(D) Duarte Barbosa
Ans : (A)

48. Which of these features of Indian art was adopted in the construction of Mosques in India ?
(A) Turned Lotus
(B) Kalash on the domes
(C) Ornamentation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

49. Who said, “God knows man’s virtues and inquires not his caste; in the next world there is no caste” ?
(A) Kabir
(B) Guru Nanak
(C) Chaitanya
(D) Ramananda
Ans : (A)

50. Who among these devotional saints was a cobler ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Raidas
(D) Malukdas
Ans : (C)

51. Who founded the Varkari sect in Maharashtra ?
(A) Tukaram
(B) Namdev
(C) Visoba Khechar
(D) Eknath
Ans : (C)

52. The Sufi concept of Anal Haq was inspired by the following concept of Vedanta—
(A) Tat Twam Asi (that thou art)
(B) Ekam Advaitam (one without the second)
(C) Aham Brahmasmi (I am the supreme spirit)
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

53. Which Muslim poet of Hindi literature in medieval period wrote poetry essentially on Hindu mythological heroes ?
(A) Qutban
(B) Rasakhan
(C) Mulla Daud
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans : (B)

54. Which of the following musical instruments is not composite or Indo-Islamic in origin ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Shehnai
(C) Tabla
(D) Sarangi
Ans : (B)

55. Which among the following wars Muhammad Ghori did not participate himself in India ?
(A) Battle of Tarain in 1191
(B) Battle against Kannauj in 1194
(C) Against Chalukyas of Anhilawada in 1197-98
(D) Against Khokharas in 1205
Ans : (C)

56. Who was the Turkish commander who conquered Bihar and Bengal ?
(A) Mohammad of Ghur
(B) Kutub ud-Din Aibak
(C) Ikhtiyar ud-Din-Muhammad
(D) Bakhtiyar Khalji
Ans : (D)

57. Where did Kutub ud-Din Aibak lay the foundation of ‘seven cities’ in medieval Delhi ?
(A) Siri
(B) Tughlaqabad
(C) Mehrauli
(D) Hauz Khas
Ans : (B)

58. Which Sultan called himself ‘Naib-i-Khudai’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

59. Which sultan of Delhi refused to read ‘Khutba’ in the name of Khalifa for the first time ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Ibrahim Lodi
Ans : (A)

60. Which Delhi Sultan styled himself Sikandar-i-sani (the second Alexander) ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)

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21. In which year of Asoka’s coronation did the Kalinga war take place ?
(A) First
(B) Fifth
(C) Eighth
(D) Thirteenth
Ans : (C)

22. Which among the following combinations is correct ?
(A) Pushyamitra Shunga–Patanjali
(B) Kanishka–Thera Nagasena
(C) Menander–Ashvaghosh
(D) Chandragupta I–Harishena
Ans : (C)

23. Which Gupta emperor has been called ‘Lichchhavi-dauhitra’ ?
(A) Shrigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Samudragupta
Ans : (B)

24. Which Kushana king adopted the epithet ‘dhrama-thida’ ?
(A) Vim Kadaphises
(B) Kuzul Kadaphises
(C) Kanishka the Great
(D) Huvishka
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following inscriptions record the annihilation of Hunas ?
(A) Prayag-Prashasti
(B) Bhitari Inscription
(C) Junagarh Inscription
(D) Mandasor Inscription
Ans : (C)

26. Who impressed upon Harsha to incline towards Buddhism ?
(A) Bhikshu Mahakashyapa
(B) Hiuen-Tsang
(C) Thera Nagasen
(D) Diwakarmitra
Ans : (D)

27. Which king is called ‘Kaviraj’ in one of his inscriptions ?
(A) Pratihara king Mihirbhoja
(B) Paramara king Bhoja
(C) Pala king Dharmapala
(D) Chalukya king Kumarapala
Ans : (B)

28. Who among these is credited with the construction of ‘Pagodas’ at Mahabalipuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Chalukyas of Kalyani
(C) Pallavas
(D) Pandyas
Ans : (C)

29. The Office-in-charge of collection of revenue in the Mauryan administration was—
(A) Sannidhatri
(B) Pradeshta
(C) Yukta
(D) Samahatri
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the statements about the trade regulation in the Mauryan period is not correct ?
(A) The state exercised control over the trade process and profits
(B) A levy of 1/10th was fixed on merchandise
(C) The state kept strict vigil on the sale of merchandise
(D) The state employed a few of the artisans directly
Ans : (B)

31. Which one among the following statements about the land-system of post-Mauryan period is not true ?
(A) The private individuals had absolute right over their land
(B) The private individuals had limited right to alienation of land
(C) There is no record to transfer of land non-religious purposes
(D) The person who brought the land under cultivation was the owner
Ans : (B)

32. Who among the following constituted the local town administration council during the Guptas ?
(A) Purupala, Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
(B) Purupala, Sarthavaha, Dvarapala, Karnika
(C) Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
(D) Purupala, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
Ans : (C)

33. Who lamented upon the drain of gold from Rome to India ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Nero
(C) Strabo
(D) Pliny
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following statements about the agrahara land grant is not correct ?
(A) The king could offer it to any one
(B) It was a village granted taxfree to Brahmanas
(C) The king could confiscate it on being displeased by the grantee
(D) It underlined the privileges of the Brahmanas
Ans : (A)

35. Debasement of the coins and gradual disappearance of goldcoins during the post-Gupta period indicates—
(A) Cheapness of commodities, no need of gold-coins
(B) Non-availability of gold
(C) Decline of money economy
(D) Decline of Trade
Ans : (D)

36. Which new route was added for foreign trade during Gupta period ?
(A) Overseas route to South Africa
(B) Overseas route to Alexandria
(C) Overland route to China
(D) Overland route to North Russia
Ans : (C)

37. The most famous bronze image of the Chola period belongs to—
(A) Murugan
(B) Nataraja
(C) Venkateshwar
(D) Vishnu
Ans : (B)

38. Which one among these is not a work of Kalidasa ?
(A) Ritusamhara
(B) Meghaduta
(C) Dashakumarcharita
(D) Kumarashambhava
Ans : (C)

39. The most important feature of the Dravida style of temple architecture is—
(A) Shikhara
(B) Gopuram
(C) Vimana
(D) Mandapa
Ans : (C)

40. The earliest example of a ‘Panchayatana’ composition in temple is—
(A) Dashavatara temple–Deogarh
(B) Temple at Pathari
(C) Shatrughneshwara temple at Bhubaneshwar
(D) Lakshmana temple at Sirpur
Ans : (A)

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1. Which among the following Vedas is partly in prose ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samaveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (C)

2. Which one among the following is a Tamil grammatical treatise ?
(A) Pattupattu
(B) Ettutogai
(C) Silappadikaram
(D) Tolkappiam
Ans : (D)

3. Who among the following has not quoted from the Indica of Megasthenese ?
(A) Pliny
(B) Strabo
(C) Diodorus
(D) Arrian
Ans : (C)

4. Who was the first to decipher the inscriptions of Ashoka and the Brahmi script ?
(A) Alexander Cunningham
(B) James Princep
(C) Max Muller
(D) Mortimer Wheeler
Ans : (B)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
(a) Stuart Piggot
(b) Subbarao
(c) B. and R. Alchin
(d) H. D. Sankalia
1. Personality of India
2. The Birth of Indian Civilization
3. Prehistoric India
4. Prehistory and Protohistory of India and Pakistan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (B)

6. Select the correct statement about the Nanaghat Inscription of the Satavahanas—
(A) It speaks about Shaka-Satavahana conflict
(B) It refers to the place of origin of Satavahanas
(C) It speaks about the navy of the Satavahanas
(D) It refers to one of the mother-queens of the Satavahanas
Ans : (B)

7. Which among the following excavated sites is related to Malwa culture ?
(A) Navadatoli
(B) Nagda
(C) Eran
(D) Azadnagar
Ans : (A)

8. In which one of the following regions the earliest evidence of rice cultivation has come ?
(A) Central Ganga Valley
(B) Belan Valley
(C) Gomal Valley
(D) Bolan Valley
Ans : (B)

9. Horse remains are found at which of the following Harappan sites ?
(A) Surkotada, Kalibangan and Dholavira
(B) Kalibangan, Manda and Surkotada
(C) Surkotada, Dholavira and Manda
(D) Surkotada and Kalibangan
Ans : (D)

10. Identify the incorrect combination among the following—
(A) Harappa and Grenary
(B) Mohen-jo-daro and the great bath
(C) Dholavira and single citadel
(D) Lothal and Dockyard
Ans : (C)

11. At which place among these the rows of distinctive fire altars with provision of ritual bathing have been found ?
(A) Mohen-jo-daro
(B) Harappa
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Lothal
Ans : (C)

12. The main focus of the Rigvedic culture was—
(A) The Indo-Gangetic region
(B) The Punjab and Delhi region
(C) The Indus valley region
(D) The region between Swat and Indus
Ans : (A)

13. The Rigvedic king did not maintain an administrative machinery because—
(A) The king did not wish to have so
(B) The Rigvedic economy was not suitable to it
(C) The social structure was not in accordance
(D) The kingship was not hereditary
Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following statements regarding Vedic woman is not correct ?
(A) Woman attended assemblies
(B) Woman participated in sacrifices
(C) Woman was allowed to have Vedic education
(D) The family was matriarchal
Ans : (D)

15. For what reason the ganasamgha areas have been indicated as ‘mlechchhadesha’ in the post-Vedic period ?
(A) Absence of ranking based on varna
(B) Rejection of Vedic rituals
(C) Killing of cows
(D) Speaking alien languages
Ans : (B)

16. With what name the Jainism referred to before the coming of Mahavir ?
(A) Jina
(B) Kevalin
(C) Nirgranthas
(D) Tirthankaras
Ans : (D)

17. Which tradition has most importance for deciding the dates of birth and death of lord Buddha ?
(A) Ceylones Tradition–Mahavansa and Deepavansa
(B) Chinese Tradition–Canton
(C) Indian Buddhist literature–Avadana literature
(D) Tibetan Tradition–Historian Taranath
Ans : (A)

18. Which one of the following ancient cities is not related to the life of Gautam Buddha ?
(A) Champa
(B) Saketa
(C) Pataliputra
(D) Kosambi
Ans : (C)

19. The term ‘Rupadarshaka’ denotes what ?
(A) The supervisor of prostitutes
(B) The supervisor of royal harem
(C) The supervisor of the quality of coins
(D) The supervisor of the folkdancers
Ans : (C)

20. Which one of the statements is controversial in the context of the treaty of 303 B.C. between Chandragupta and Seleucus ?
(A) Seleucus surrendered his large territories to Chandragupta
(B) Chandragupta made a gift of 500 elephants to Seleucus
(C) Megasthenes was sent as a Greek envoy to the court of Chandragupta
(D) Seleucus gave his daughter in marriage to Chandragupta
Ans : (D)

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181. The Himalayas run in an eastwest arcuate curve for about—
(A) 2000 km
(B) 2500 km
(C) 3000 km
(D) 4000 km
Ans : (B)

182. Second Five-Year Plan was completed on—
(A) 31.3.1961
(B) 15.6.1961
(C) 20.8.1962
(D) 29.9.1962
Ans : (A)

183. All the colours on a TV screen are produced from—
(A) Red, Blue, Green
(B) Red, Violet, Green
(C) Blue, Violet, Yellow
(D) Blue, Green, Yellow
Ans : (A)

184. Who does finalise budget ?
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Management Accountant
(C) Finance Manager
(D) Budget Committee
Ans : (D)

185. In the Central budget estimate (2007-08) the largest item of nonplan expenditure on revenue account is—
(A) Defence
(B) Subsidies
(C) Interest payments
(D) Pensions
Ans : (C)

186. Inventory carrying costs include the following :
(A) Spoilage and desolescence
(B) Abrehousing, insurance and tax
(C) Opportunity cost
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

187. IC chips for computers are usually made of—
(A) Lead
(B) Chromium
(C) Copper
(D) Silicon
Ans : (D)

188. The Jammu-Srinagar road follows …… Pass.
(A) Banihal
(B) Shipkila
(C) Pir Panjal
(D) Zemu
Ans : (C)

189. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor General controls all disbursements and audits the accounts of both the Union and State Governments
(B) He annually submits a report to the President relating to the accounts of the Union
(C) The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is considered by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament
(D) No money by the Union and State Governments can be spent without prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans : (D)

190. The Preamble was amended by the—
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 37th Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)

191. Bibi-Ka-Maqbara is located at—
(A) Agra
(B) Delhi
(C) Aurangabad
(D) Ajmer
Ans : (C)

192. The Himalayan rivers are typical example of …… drainage.
(A) antecedent
(B) subsequent
(C) consequent
(D) obsequent
Ans : (A)

193. Medical insurance premium is deductible—
(A) If the premium is paid in cash out of income chargeable to tax
(B) If the premium is paid by cheque out of income chargeable to tax
(C) If the premium is deposited to Life Insurance Corporation
(D) If the premium is paid for insurance of the life of a senior citizen only
Ans : (B)

194. Budget is known as—
(A) Financial Statement
(B) Annual Budget
(C) Financial Statement of the year
(D) It has no other name
Ans : (C)

195. ‘Golden Globe’ Award is associated with—
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Sports
(D) Cinema
Ans : (D)

196. Tipam sandstones are found in—
(A) Kashmir
(B) U. P.
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Assam
Ans : (D)

197. The Constitution of India recognises—
(A) 12 Regional languages
(B) 13 Regional languages
(C) 14 Regional languages
(D) 18 Regional languages
Ans : (D)

198. No demand for a grant under Article 113 of the Constitution shall be made except on the recommendation of the—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker of the Parliament
(C) President
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (C)

199. Penicillin was discovered by—
(A) Michael Faraday
(B) Sir Alexander Fleming
(C) William Harvey
(D) Charles Goodyear
Ans : (B)

200. The Chumbi Valley is located in—
(A) Sikkim
(B) Bhutan
(C) Assam
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (B)

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161. What does DTP stands for ?
(A) Data typing process
(B) Desktop Publishing
(C) Desktop processing
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

162. What is meant by ‘Primary deficit’ in a budget ?
(A) Total Receipts minus Total Expenditure
(B) Revenue Receipts minus Revenue Expenditure
(C) Budget Deficit plus Government’s Market Borrowing
(D) Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments
Ans : (D)

163. Which statesman was able to integrate Indian native States after independence ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballavbhai Patel
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

164. The qualification of member of Finance Commission may be determined by the—
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (A)

165. Which State is the leading producer of wheat ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

166. Receipts and Payments Account record receipts and payments of—
(A) Capital nature only
(B) Revenue nature only
(C) Both capital and revenue nature
(D) Deferred revenue nature only
Ans : (C)

167. The share of service sector in Gross Domestic Product for the year 2001-02, was—
(A) 40•3%
(B) 54•1%
(C) 38•7%
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

168. Who was the founder commander of the Indian National Army (INA) ?
(A) Rashbehari Bose
(B) Capt. Mohan Singh
(C) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) None of them
Ans : (C)

169. Where do Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join to form Ganga ?
(A) Karna Prayag
(B) Rudra Prayag
(C) Dev Prayag
(D) Gangotri
Ans : (C)

170. Second Five-Year Plan of Government of India was launched in—
(A) November 1956
(B) April 1956
(C) June 1957
(D) December 1957
Ans : (B)

171. As per the Census 2001, the population of West Bengal was—
(A) 10 crores
(B) 8•01 crores
(C) 6•5 crores
(D) 9 crores
Ans : (B)

172. Who was the founder of the Indian Independence League ?
(A) Krishna Verma
(B) Rashbehari Bose
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

173. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Ans : (D)

174. The share of direct taxes in total tax revenue of the Centre for the year 2003-04 was—
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 45%
(D) 38%
Ans : (D)

175. Managerial Grid Leadership theory was invented by—
(A) Blake and Moutan
(B) Tannenbaum and Schmidt
(C) Perry and Franklin
(D) Mc Gregor
Ans : (A)

176. Money Bill can be made—
(A) Invalid by Rajya Sabha
(B) Invalid by both the Houses of Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

177. What new names were given to Andaman and Nicobar Islands by the Provisional I.N.A. Government in 1944 after their liberation ?
(A) Mother India
(B) Azad
(C) ‘Sahid’ and ‘Swaraj’—respectively
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

178. Which planet appears to be the brightest in the night sky ?
(A) Jupiter
(B) Venus
(C) Saturn
(D) Mars
Ans : (B)

179. The Governor of RBI at present is—
(A) C. Rangrajan
(B) Bimal Jalan
(C) D. Subba Rao
(D) V. Kelkar
Ans : (C)

180. Depreciation on plant and machinery is—
(A) Not a cash cost, so is ignored in the cost accounts
(B) Part of manufacturing overhead
(C) Part of prime cost
(D) Always calculated using the straight-line method
Ans : (D)

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141. The fifth term of the following alphabet series is BCYX, EFVU, HISR, KLPO, ?
Ans : (A)

142. The Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in the year—
(A) 1961
(B) 1971
(C) 1988
(D) 2001
Ans : (C)

143. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to—
(A) Consolidated Fund of the State
(B) Consolidated Fund of India
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) (A) and (B) in equal proportion
Ans : (A)

144. Who was founder of Vijayanagar empire ?
(A) Krishna Deva Raya
(B) Devoraya I
(C) Harihar and Bukka
(D) Ram Raya
Ans : (C)

145. By selling an article at Rs. 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at Rs. 360, his gain per cent is—
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 25
Ans : (B)

146. If a company has 10 directors, quorum for directors’ board meeting is—
(A) 2 Directors
(B) 3 Directors
(C) 4 Directors
(D) 5 Directors
Ans : (C)

147. In case of hire-purchase the ownership goes to the purchaser—
(A) On signing the contract
(B) On payment of down payment
(C) On payment of 1st instalment
(D) On payment of last instalment
Ans : (D)

148. The number of Public sector enterprises included in ‘Navaratna’ category in the year 1998-99 was—
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 7
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

149. Who started the ‘Home Rule’ Movement ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Mrs. Anne Besant
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

150. How many days’ notice must be given to all members for annual general meeting of company ?
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 30 days
Ans : (C)

151. In VED analysis E stands for—
(A) Estimated
(B) Essential
(C) Equated
(D) Entity
Ans : (B)

152. Narasimham Committee Report, 1991 was related to—
(A) Agricultural Reform
(B) Trade Reform
(C) Tax Reform
(D) Financial Sector Reform
Ans : (D)

153. ‘‘Land of Midnight Sun’’ is—
(A) Japan
(B) Finland
(C) Thailand
(D) Norway
Ans : (D)

154. At which place Gandhiji had the first experience of mass movement in India ?
(A) Bardoli
(B) Dandi
(C) Chauri Chaura
(D) Champaran
Ans : (D)

155. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by—
(A) The President of India
(B) The Council of Ministers
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (A)

156. The Secretary of a municipality is appointed by—
(A) The Commissioners
(B) The Chairman
(C) The State Government
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

157. The author of the book ‘My Truth’ is—
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) R. K. Narayan
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Indira Gandhi
Ans : (D)

158. The Unit Trust of India was formally established in the year—
(A) 1951
(B) 1964
(C) 1970
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)

159. What was the main aim of the Cabinet Mission ?
(A) To work out details for transfer of power
(B) To establish a constituent Assembly for framing a Constitution
(C) To enquire into the working of the Act of 1919
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

160. In passenger-transport industry which of the following cost unit is applied ?
(A) Passenger-hour
(B) Passenger-kilometre
(C) Per kilometre
(D) Per hour
Ans : (B)

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121. Khilafat Movement subsided because—
(A) Britishers gave concession to the Muslims
(B) The National Congress and the Muslim League achieved unity
(C) Accession of Kamal Pasha on the throne of Turkey
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

122. Judges of Supreme Court hold office up to the age of—
(A) 56
(B) 62
(C) 60
(D) 65
Ans : (D)

123. …… is the highest point of South Bengal.
(A) Goraburu
(B) Banduan
(C) Bagmundi
(D) Ayodhya
Ans : (A)

124. Who was the founder of Bhoodan Movement ?
(A) Vinoba Bhave
(B) Baba Amte
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
(D) Manabendra Nath Roy
Ans : (A)

125. Where is Taxila ?
(A) In Bihar
(B) In West Punjab (now in Pakistan)
(C) In U. P.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

126. An exceptional grant, which forms no part of the current service of any financial year, may be authorised under Art. 116 (1) (c) by the—
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Parliament
Ans : (D)

127. Gopiballavpur is situated by the side of …… river.
(A) Kangsabati
(B) Dulung
(C) Subarnarekha
(D) Rupnarayan
Ans : (C)

128. Who first proposed the creation of ‘Pakistan’ as a separate State ?
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(B) Syed Ahmed Khan
(C) Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Chaudhuri Rahmat Ali
Ans : (C)

129. The largest contribution to India’s foreign exchange reserve in value terms comes from—
(A) Engineering Goods
(B) Software Services
(C) Gems and Jewellery
(D) Readymade Garments
Ans : (C)

130. Which Art. empowers the President to constitute Finance Commission ?
(A) 72
(B) 76
(C) 280
(D) 281
Ans : (C)

131. Which of the following Committees of Parliament is concerned with the regularity and economy of the expenditure of the Government ?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

132. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was implemented in the year—
(A) 1951
(B) 1960
(C) 1970
(D) 1991
Ans : (D)

133. The ratio of the sum and difference of two numbers is 7 : 3. The ratio of the numbers is—
(A) 7 : 3
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 3 : 7
(D) 2 : 5
Ans : (B)

134. The first political society started under British rule in India was—
(A) Brahma Samaj
(B) Arya Samaj
(C) Land holders society
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

135. Statutory meeting of a public company is held—
(A) Once in the lifetime of the company
(B) Once in every year
(C) Twice in every year
(D) Thrice in every year
Ans : (A)

136. India’s First Five-Year Plan was inaugurated in—
(A) May 1952
(B) June 1953
(C) April 1951
(D) July 1954
Ans : (C)

137. The least integer when multiplied by 588 becomes a perfect square is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

138. Human Development Index is calculated by taking into account—
(A) Longevity of life
(B) Educational attainment
(C) The standard of living
(D) All of these components
Ans : (D)

139. If a person purchases shares in an Indian company, they will become long term capital asset if he holds them for—
(A) More than 24 months
(B) More than 36 months
(C) More than 12 months
(D) More than 18 months
Ans : (C)

140. In which year the capital of India was shifted from Kolkata to Delhi ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1911
(C) 1931
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)

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101. Every person appointed to be the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, before he enters upon his office, shall make an oath according to the form set out for the purpose specified in the—
(A) Second Schedule
(B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Sixth Schedule
Ans : (C)

102. Rains caused by thunderstorms in Karnataka during the ‘hot weather season’ is known as ……
(A) Mango showers
(B) Kalbaisakhi
(C) Chery blossoms
(D) Loo
Ans : (A)

103. In which year All India Muslim League was founded ?
(A) 1906
(B) 1919
(C) 1937
(D) 1940
Ans : (A)

104. Which of the following is a way to create secret reserve ?
(A) Not showing a liability
(B) Showing increased value of goodwill
(C) Showing contingent liability as actual
(D) Charging less depreciation on fixed asset
Ans : (C)

105. Lord Buddha achieved Mahaparinirvana at the age of 80 at—
(A) Lumbini
(B) Kapilabastu
(C) Bodh Gaya
(D) Kushinagar
Ans : (C)

106. In Indian Constitution, Directive Principles are mentioned in—
(A) Part-I
(B) Part-II
(C) Part-III
(D) Part-IV
Ans : (D)

107. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
(A) Green revolution is limited to few crops only
(B) The gains of green revolution are limited to selected parts of India
(C) Green revolution has benefited the small and marginal farmers
(D) Green revolution has increased economic disparity among farmers
Ans : (C)

108. Who was the author of ‘India Wins Freedom’ ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

109. The Eleventh Five-Year Plan aims at raising the rate of growth of industrial sector to—
(A) 10%
(B) 14%
(C) 16%
(D) 20%
Ans : (A)

110. The internal auditor of a company is appointed by—
(A) The Shareholders
(B) The Central Government
(C) The long term lenders
(D) The Board of Directors
Ans : (D)

111. India is traversed by the—
(A) Equator
(B) Prime Meridian
(C) Tropic of Cancer
(D) Tropic of Capricorn
Ans : (C)

112. At Break Even Point—
(A) Fixed cost equals total variable cost
(B) Average fixed cost equals average revenue
(C) Total sale equals total cost
(D) Marginal cost equals marginal revenue
Ans : (C)

113. The Indian Aluminium Co. Ltd. has its rolling mill at …….
(A) Muri
(B) Belur
(C) Alwaye
(D) Belgaum
Ans : (B)

114. Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha—
(A) Not more than one month
(B) Not more than one week
(C) Not more than 14 days
(D) Not more than two months
Ans : (C)

115. Who was the first woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Anne Besant
(B) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Aruna Asaf Ali
Ans : (A)

116. Which of the following countries produces the highest percentage of its electrical energy from nuclear reactors ?
(A) France
(B) Russia
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

117. The Eleventh Finance Commission submitted its supplementary report in—
(A) August 2000
(B) July 2001
(C) September 2001
(D) January 2002
Ans : (A)

118. …… is the most urbanised State of India (2001 Census).
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Mizoram
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Goa
Ans : (D)

119. Fees of a director are chargeable under the head—
(A) Salaries
(B) Income from business or profession
(C) Income from other sources
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

120. Black soil is most suitable for which of the following crops ?
(A) Rice
(B) Cotton
(C) Jute
(D) Wheat
Ans : (B)

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81. The proportion of ST population to total population is highest in …….
(A) M. P.
(B) Manipur
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

82. The Planning Commission was constituted by the Government of India and its Chairman was—
(A) Gulzarilal Nanda
(B) Ballavbhai Patel
(C) Jagjiwan Ram
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (D)

83. Which one of the following is most likely to occur if the Reserve Bank of India lowers the Cash Reserve Ratio ?
(A) An increase in aggregate savings
(B) A rise in Budget Deficit
(C) A rise in aggregate money supply
(D) A rise in the use of Credit Cards
Ans : (C)

84. Which of the following incidents marked the beginning of the Turkish rule in India ?
(A) First attack of Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Attack of Muhammad Ghori
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

85. Which of the following transactions are not entered in journal proper ?
(A) Dishonour of bills
(B) Rectification of errors
(C) Issue of shares
(D) Sales return
Ans : (B)

86. Almost 98% reserves of barites are found in …….
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

87. Which incident forced Gandhiji to call for the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 ?
(A) Mob violence in Chauri Chaura
(B) Jallianwallabag Massacre
(C) Chittagong Armoury Raid
(D) Foundation of Swaraj Party
Ans : (A)

88. What is Din-i-Ilahi ?
(A) A mosque set-up by Akbar
(B) A religious book
(C) A religious prayer
(D) A religious path laid down by Akbar, The Great Mughal
Ans : (D)

89. State Governments and Central Government, both can make laws on matters enshrined in—
(A) Central List
(B) Concurrent List
(C) State List
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

90. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was given by—
(A) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)

91. Since the commencement of the Indian Constitution, the number of Finance Commission constituted was—
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 12
(D) 14
Ans : (C)

92. The river Tapti flows into the—
(A) Palk Straits
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) Indian Ocean
Ans : (C)

93. The older alluvium of the Ganga plains is known as ……….
(A) Khadar
(B) Bhabar
(C) Bhangar
(D) Kallar
Ans : (C)

94. Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal ?
(A) David Hare
(B) Sir William Jones
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Sir East Hyde
Ans : (B)

95. The company auditor prepares his report for the—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Board of Directors
(C) Central Government
Ans : (B)

96. Which one of the following is India’s largest private sector bank ?
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Axis Bank
(D) Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation
Ans : (B)

97. The Regur soil has been derived from the …… rocks.
(A) granites
(B) basaltic lava
(C) gneiss
(D) limestones
Ans : (B)

98. What is the main aim of ‘Swaraj Party’ ?
(A) To start non-cooperation movement
(B) To enter Legislative Council for Wrecking from within
(C) To make a demand for a new constitution
(D) To get complete freedom for India
Ans : (D)

99. On what basis the seats of Lok Sabha are distributed among the Indian States ?
(A) Population
(B) Area and Resources
(C) Area, Resources and Population
(D) Efficient Management of Finances
Ans : (A)

100. How many types of emergency have been mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

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61. GAAP stands for—
(A) General Accounting and Auditing Procedure
(B) Generally Accepted Accounting Procedure
(C) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(D) General Auditing and Accounting Principles
Ans : (C)

62. Which of the following teams won the Ranji Trophy in 2008 ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

63. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag of India ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 16
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

64. At the suggestion of the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission Mr. Lakadwala at the time of Janata Party Government, a new type of Plan called Rolling Plan was launched from—
(A) January, 1978
(B) March, 1978
(C) April, 1978
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

65. The Pong Dam has been constructed on …… river.
(A) The Beas
(B) The Chenub
(C) The Ravi
(D) The Shutlej
Ans : (A)

66. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission for Central Government employees ?
(A) K. G. Balakrishnan
(B) A. M. Ahmadi
(C) R. C. Lahoti
(D) B. N. Srikrishna
Ans : (D)

67. Where was Buddha born ?
(A) Rajagriha
(B) Magadha
(C) Kosala
(D) Lumbini
Ans : (D)

68. Number of MPs to Lok Sabha from West Bengal are—
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 41
Ans : (A)

69. The cost formulae recommended by IAS-2 to value inventories are—
(A) FIFO or weighted average
(B) Standard cost
(C) NIFO or latest purchase price
Ans : (A)

70. Which is the first country to sign a Civil Nuclear Agreement with India on September, 2008 putting an end to its over three decades of isolation in the nuclear energy ?
(A) France
(B) United Kingdom
(C) China
(D) Russia
Ans : (A)

71. The Jataka tales are Stories about the lives of—
(A) The Bodhisattvas
(B) The Jain teachers
(C) The Vedic saints
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following rivers does not fall into the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) The Pennar
(B) The Paira
(C) The Krishna
(D) The Sharavati
Ans : (D)

73. Pre-incorporation profit is an example of—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Secret Reserve
(C) Revenue Reserve
(D) Statutory Reserve
Ans : (A)

74. ‘Bird’s Nest’ is the name of a—
(A) Stadium in Beijing
(B) Bird sanctuary in Bharatpur
(C) Spot known for eco-tourism near Colombo
(D) Famous building in New York
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following scientists and mathematicians belonged to the Gupta period ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Varahamihira
(C) Both of them
(D) Neither of them
Ans : (C)

76. Seventh Five-Year Plan was launched in—
(A) April, 1985
(B) August, 1986
(C) June, 1986
(D) November, 1985
Ans : (A)

77. In the arid Western part of India, Dhands are ……
(A) Narrow Depressions
(B) Small hills
(C) Pediments
(D) Alkaline lakes
Ans : (C)

78. A country is said to be going through an economic recession if there is a sustained decline in its GDP for two consecutive—
(A) Months
(B) Quarters
(C) Years
(D) Decades
Ans : (D)

79. Which country influenced Gandhara art ?
(A) China
(B) Greece
(C) Rome
(D) Egypt
Ans : (B)

80. Art. 14 of the Indian Constitution is related to—
(A) Right to equality
(B) Supreme Court
(C) President
(D) Governor
Ans : (A)

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41. Best judgment assessment under the I.T. Act, 1961 can be done by—
(A) Assessee
(B) Assessing Officer
(C) Employer
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

42. Ten Degree channel is situated between ……
(A) North & South Andaman
(B) Middle & South Andaman
(C) Little Andaman & Nicobor Islands
(D) India and Sri Lanka
Ans : (C)

43. Salman Rushdie won the Best of Booker Prize in 2008 for his novel—
(A) Beneath Her Feet
(B) The Moor’s Last Sigh
(C) Shalimar The Clown
(D) Midnight’s Children
Ans : (D)

44. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as watch-dog on departmental expenditure and irregularities ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Committee on Public Undertakings
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Committee on Public Assurances
Ans : (C)

45. Cooking gas supplied in cylinders is in the form of—
(A) Liquid
(B) Gas
(C) Solid
(D) A solution
Ans : (A)

46. If at an annual general meeting no auditor is appointed or reappointed, the auditor can be appointed by—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Secretary
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

47. The estimated Fiscal Deficit in the Union Interim Budget, 2009 has been placed at—
(A) 4.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 5.5%
(D) 6%
Ans : (C)

48. Rovers’ Cup is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey
(D) Football
Ans : (D)

49. Rourkela Steel Plant is located at the confluence of Sankya and …… rivers.
(A) Koel
(B) Subarnarekha
(C) Damodar
(D) Dulung
Ans : (A)

50. The Chief Guest on India’s 60th Republic Day held on January 26, 2009 was the President of—
(A) Uzbekistan
(B) Kyrgyzstan
(C) Tajikistan
(D) Kazakhstan
Ans : (D)

51. The Planning Commission was constituted by a resolution of Government of India on—
(A) June 20, 1951
(B) March 15, 1950
(C) July 30, 1950
(D) September 15, 1951
Ans : (B)

52. In which part of the Indian Constitution, citizenship is referred ?
(A) Part-I
(B) Part-II
(C) Part-III
(D) Part-IV
Ans : (D)

53. The Lok Sabha which was elected in 2004 is—
(A) The 12th Lok Sabha
(B) The 13th Lok Sabha
(C) The 14th Lok Sabha
(D) The 15th Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

54. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission ?
(A) C. Rangarajan
(B) V. L. Kelkar
(C) A. M. Khusroo
(D) R. Chelliah
Ans : (B)

55. The ‘Nandadevi Himal’ feeds the …… glaciers.
(A) Pindari
(B) Siachen
(C) Gangotri
(D) Hispar
Ans : (C)

56. Eleventh Five-Year Plan covers the period from—
(A) 2003 to 2008
(B) 2007 to 2012
(C) 2002 to 2007
(D) 2005 to 2010
Ans : (B)

57. Who presides over meetings of Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Speaker
Ans : (B)

58. Who is the newly elected Vice-President of USA ?
(A) Hillary Clinton
(B) Sara Palin
(C) John McCain
(D) Joseph Biden
Ans : (D)

59. Who is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces of India ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Union Defence Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

60. Tamil and Malayalam languages belong to …… linguistic family.
(A) Aryan
(B) Dravidian
(C) Austric
(D) Mongolean
Ans : (B)

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OAVS Recruitment 2017 Apply for 1090 Principal/PET/TGT/Computer Teacher Vacancy Exam

26. Which of the following countries denied Dalai Lama a visa to attend a peace conference with other Nobel laureates ?
(A) Iran
(B) South Africa
(C) Russia
(D) Mongolia
Ans : (B)

27. Abul-Fajal lived during the period of—
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Babar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Akbar
Ans : (D)

28. In terms of irrigation, which of the following States strikes a balance between all types ?
(A) Punjab
(B) U.P.
(C) Karnataka
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)

29. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

30. The film Slumdog Millionaire which won the ‘Best Film’ award at the 81st Academy Awards is based on a novel by—
(A) Khuswant Singh
(B) Anita Deshai
(C) Danny Boyle
(D) Vikash Swarup
Ans : (D)

31. The film ‘Unishe April’ was directed by—
(A) Rituparna Ghose
(B) Aparna Sen
(C) Mrinal Sen
(D) Gautam Ghose
Ans : (A)

32. The articles where Right to Freedom of Religion is mentioned are—
(A) Art. 12-19
(B) Art. 19-21
(C) Art. 25-28
(D) Art. 21-28
Ans : (C)

33. The rural settlements of Kerala are mostly ……
(A) Compact
(B) Dispersed
(C) Linear
(D) Agglomerated
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following pairs won the Mixed Doubles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Championships, 2009?
(A) Cara Black and Leander Paes
(B) Sania Mirza and Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Nathalie Dechy and Andy Ram
(D) Liezel Huber and Jamie Murray
Ans : (B)

35. The disease ‘beri beri’ is caused by the deficiency of—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iron
(C) Vitamin B
(D) Iodine
Ans : (C)

36. The Central Government gives grants-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India on the basis of recommendation of the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Estimates Committee
Ans : (B)

37. The Barren and Narcondam islands are—
(A) Of volcanic origin
(B) Sub-marine ridges
(C) Coral reefs
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

38. To which place did Tata Motors decide to shift the Nano Project from Singur ?
(A) Pithampur
(B) Pune
(C) Pantnagar
(D) Sanand
Ans : (D)

39. In Parliamentary system the Executive is responsible—
(A) Directly to the people
(B) To the legislature
(C) To the judiciary
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

40. ‘Baking Powder’ is—
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Baker’s yeast
Ans : (B)

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OAVS Recruitment 2017 – Odisha Adarsha Vidyalaya Sangathan – 1090 Trained Graduate Teacher, Physical Education Teacher, Art Teacher & Various Vacancies Exam

11. Capsule of Tenon is associated with—
(A) Eyeball
(B) Brain
(C) Skin
(D) Kidney
Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following law is associated with the fact that anterior spinal nerve roots contain only motor fibres and posterior roots only sensory fibres ?
(A) Magendie’s law
(B) Bell’s law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. In birds—
(A) Left oviduct and right aortic arch are present
(B) Left oviduct and left aortic arch are present
(C) Right oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
(D) Left oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
Ans : (B)

14. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during—
(A) Devonian period
(B) Carboniferous period
(C) Jurassic period
(D) Cretaceous period
Ans : (B)

15. Community health services involves—
(A) Control of communicable diseases
(B) School and health education
(C) Awareness of clean environment
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

16. The active rolling over of endodermal and mesodermal cells from the embryo surface into the interior is defined as—
(A) Ingression
(B) Involution
(C) Epiboly
(D) Inversion
Ans : (B)

17. The wall of heart is made up of—
(A) Epicardium
(B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

18. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by—
(A) Height of individual
(B) Colour of individual
(C) Screening procedures
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by intestinal mucosa that remain closely associated with the microvilli ?
(A) Peptidase
(B) Disaccharidase
(C) Trypsin
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is absorbed by intestinal mucosa by active transport ?
(A) Galactose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)

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MAHADISCOM Recruitment 2017 – Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Company Limited – 2542 Upkendra Sahayyak Vacancies Exam

A starving person consumes first—
(A) Body fats
(B) Body proteins
(C) Vitamins
(D) Stored glycogen
Ans : (D)

2. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is—
(A) Cross bridges
(B) Sarcomeres
(C) Myofibril
(D) Z-band
Ans : (B)

3. Globular proteins undergo structural changes in response to extremes of pH or temperature, is called—
(A) Renaturation
(B) Denaturation
(C) Combination
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (B)

4. The study of relationships between size and shape is known as—
(A) Allometry
(B) Heterochrony
(C) Isometry
(D) Allochrony
Ans : (A)

5. A localised tumour covered by connective tissue is called—
(A) Metastasis
(B) Neoplasm
(C) Benign tumour
(D) Malignant tumour
Ans : (C)

6. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
(A) Rh+ individuals
(B) Rh individuals
(C) AB blood group individuals
(D) O blood group individuals
Ans : (A)

7. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an infant’s skull is called—
(A) Suture
(B) Fontanel
(C) Ligament
(D) Fascia
Ans : (B)

8. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to the presence of—
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Ca++
(D) Mg++
Ans : (A)

9. Staph food poisoning is related with—
(A) Salmonella bacteria
(B) Clostridium bacteria
(C) Staphylococcus bacteria
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Capacitation is—
(A) Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa
(B) Final stage in fertilization
(C) Maturation of ovum
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

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UP Police Recruitment 2017, 4549 SI ASI, Fireman & Jail Warder Posts available

  1. Auditor shall be punished with imprisonment for a maximum period of ……… under Section 539 for falsification in the books of accounts.
    (A) 3 years
    (B) 5 years
    (C) 7 years
    (D) 9 years
    Ans : (C)

    92. “Auditor is not an insurer.” In which of the following cases, the decision has been given ?
    (A) The Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. (1986)
    (B) London & General Bank (1895)
    (C) Allen Craig & Co. Ltd. (1934)
    (D) Irish Woollen Co. Ltd.
    Ans : (B)

    93. The Section 80A of the Companies’ Act is related with the redemption of—
    (A) Debentures
    (B) Redeemable preference shares
    (C) Irredeemable preference shares
    (D) None of the above
    Ans : (C)

    94. Company Auditor is responsible—
    (A) For directors
    (B) For shareholders
    (C) For public
    (D) For creditors
    Ans : (B)

    95. In Balance Sheet, Audit Accounts are audited—
    (A) Monthly
    (B) Bi-monthly
    (C) Annually or half yearly
    (D) Quarterly
    Ans : (C)

    96. Audit adopted by banking company is—
    (A) Continuous Audit
    (B) Periodical Audit
    (C) Internal Audit
    (D) Balance Sheet Audit
    Ans : (A)

    97. Which of the following have lien of Company Auditor ?
    (A) Books of Accounts of the Company
    (B) Vouchers of the Company
    (C) Auditor’s working paper
    (D) All of the above
    Ans : (C)

    98. To appoint new auditor in place of retiring auditor, to adopt the procedure, which section of Companies’ Act, 1956 is applicable ?
    (A) 223
    (B) 224
    (C) 225
    (D) 226
    Ans : (B)

    99. “A company has a separate legal existence from its members.” This principle was first laid down in case of—
    (A) Saloman Vs. Saloman & Co. Ltd. (1897)
    (B) Daimler Co. Ltd. Vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (1916)
    (C) State of U. P. Vs. Renu Sagar Power Co. (1991)
    (D) Santunu Roy Vs. Union of India (1989)
    Ans : (A)

    100. According to ownership, Government Company means ……… share.
    (A) Whose paid-up share capital’s 48%, shares are owned by Government
    (B) Whose paid-up share capital’s 49% shares are owned by Government
    (C) Whose paid-up share capital’s 50% shares are owned by Government
    (D) Whose paid-up share capital’s 51% shares are owned by Government
    Ans : (D)

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61. Current Ratio is 3•75, Acid Test Ratio is 1•25 Stock Rs. 3,75,000, calculate working capital.
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 4,12,500
(D) Rs. 4,25,000
Ans : (C)

62. From the information given below, calculate Debt service coverage Ratio—
Net profit after interest and Tax Rs. 40,000, Depreciation Rs. 5,000, Rate of Income Tax 50%, 10% Mortgage Debentures Rs. 60,000. Fixed Interest Charges Rs. 6,000, Debenture Redemption Fund Appropriation of Outstanding Debentures 10%.
(A) 4•06 times
(B) 5•06 times
(C) 6•06 times
(D) 7•06 times
Ans : (A)

63. Share premium account can be used for—
(A) Paying tax liability
(B) Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
(C) Paying Dividend on shares
(D) Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Ans : (B)

64. Ploughing-back of profits means—
(A) Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
(B) Non-declaration of dividend in any year
(C) Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
(D) Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Ans : (D)

65. As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be—
(A) Added to paid up capital
(B) Deducted from called up capital
(C) Added to capital reserve
(D) Shown as a revenue reserve
Ans : (B)

66. A company invited application for subscription of 5,000 shares. The application were received for 6,000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis. If X has applied for 180 shares how many shares would be allotted to him ?
(A) 180 shares
(B) 200 shares
(C) 150 shares
(D) 175 shares
Ans : (C)

67. Consider the following information pertaining to K Ltd. on September 4, 2005, the company issued 12,000 7% debentures having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2•5%. On September 12, the company issued 25,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend @ 6% p.a. thereon. Bank balance on August 31, 2005 was Rs. 30,00,000. After effecting the above transaction, the Bank Balance as on September 30, 2005 will be—
(A) Rs. 35,15,000
(B) Rs. 33,80,000
(C) Rs. 33,45,000
(D) Rs. 35,05,000
Ans : (A)

68. The balance appearing in the books of a company at the end of year were CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security Premium Rs. 5,000, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20,000, P & L A/c (Dr) Rs. 10,000. Maximum amount available for distribution of Bonus Share will be—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 55,000
(C) Rs. 45,000
(D) Rs. 57,000
Ans : (B)

69. R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by—
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 5,00,000
(C) Rs. 3,20,000
(D) Rs. 4,80,000
Ans : (A)

70. Depletion method of depreciation is used in case of—
(A) Cattle, Loose Tools, etc.
(B) Mines, Quarries, etc.
(C) Machinery, Building, etc.
(D) Books
Ans : (B)

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BSNL Recruitment 2016 – 2017, 2510 Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Posts, Apply Online, Notification Details, Call Letter, Admit Card, Result are available at www.bsnl.co.in

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) invites the Application Form from eligible candidates for the recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) Posts, further details are given below.

Recruitment for Graduate Engineer to the post of Junior Telecom Officer (JTO) in BSNL from Open Market through valid GATE Score – 2017

Advertisement No. 12-2/2016-Rectt

Name of Organization: Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL Recruitment 2016 – 2017)

Total Number of Vacancies: 2510 Posts

Name of Posts:
Junior Telecom Officer (JTO): 2510 Posts

Scale of Pay: Rs. 16400-40500

Age Limit: 18 to 30 Years (Relaxation in age for SC/ST/OBC candidates as per Govt guidelines)

Educational Qualification and Experience Details: Candidate must have BE / B.Tech or equivalent in Telecom / Electronics / Radio / Computer / Electrical / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering or M.Sc (Electronics) / M.Sc (Computer Science) are required to appear GATE exam 2017, opting one paper from selected four disciplines of GATE paper codes i.e. CS & IT/ EC/EE/ & IN

Application Fee: Rs.1000/- for OBC Category (Rs.500/- for SC/ST)

How to Apply: All eligible and interested candidates are required to apply http://www.externalexam.bsnl.co.in website online form from 01-01-2017 to 31-01-2017

Important date:

Last Date of GATE 2017:  04/10/2016

Start Date for Online filling of Application form: 01/01/2017
Last Date for Online filling of Application form: 31/01/2017

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UPPCL Recruitment 2017 – Group C Office-Assistant/Steno 2585 Posts Exam

80. Which of the following have caused the growth of cooperative federalism in India ?
1. Union-State collaboration in economic matters
2. Union-State legislative relations
3. Compulsion of development finance
4. Dynamics of electoral politics
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Content — Schedule in the Constitution of India
(A) Languages — Eighth Schedule
(B) The forms of oaths or affirmations — Second Schedule
(C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States — Fourth Schedule
(D) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection — Tenth Schedule
Ans : (B)

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
(a) Taxes belonging to the Union exclusively
(b) Taxes belonging to the State exclusively
(c) Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States
(d) Duties levied as well as collected by the Union but assigned to the State
1. Sales tax
2. Customs
3. Excise duties on medicinal preparation
4. Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Articles 64 and 89(1) of the Constitution of India provide that the Vice-President of India shall be Ex-officio
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
2. There is no such office as that of the Vice-President of India in other parliamentary systems of Governments in Commonwealth countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

84. Consider the following statements—
1. Interest aggregation is the activity in which the political demands of individuals and groups are combined
into policy programmes.
2. Large nations usually develop more specialized organisations for the specific purpose of aggregating interests and resources behind a policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

85. Which one of the following judgements stated that secularism and federalism are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(B) S. R. Bommai Case
(C) Indira Sawhney Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Ans : (A)

86. Consider the following statements—
1. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the chairman and members of statutory bodies
at his discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

87. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House ?
(A) Article 84
(B) Article 85
(C) Article 87
(D) Article 88
Ans : (D)

88. Which one of the following is not associated with the duties of the Prime Minister ?
(A) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(B) To recommend to the President about the decision that a particular Bill may be certified as Money Bill
(C) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislations as the President may call for
(D) If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister which has not been considered by the Council
Ans : (B)

89. The Kamraj Plan proposed—
(A) priority to agriculture over industry
(B) inducting senior leaders to party work
(C) election to all party offices
(D) an overhaul of the Congress Working Committee
Ans : (D)

90. Consider the following statements—
1. The representation of women in the Lok Sabha (up to 14th) has never exceeded 10 per cent of the total
2. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

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KPSC Recruitment 2017 – 1254 Vacancy for Geologist, Assistant Engineers Exam

71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
State — No. of Members in the Rajya Sabha
(A) Maharashtra — 19
(B) Tamil Nadu — 18
(C) Bihar — 18
(D) West Bengal — 16
Ans : (C)

72. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body ?
(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(B) National Commission for Minorities
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (A)

73. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ?
1. By birth
2. By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalization
5. By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 3, 4 and 4 only
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51A of the Constitution ?
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 4 and 5
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following are considered as basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
1. Republican and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes give below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)

76. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development
plan, as recommended by such a Committee ?
(A) The Planning Commission
(B) The Finance Minister, Government of India
(C) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
(D) The Government of the State
Ans : (D)

77. Consider the following statements—
The Sarkaria Commission recommended :
1. the overlapping membership between Planning Commission and Finance Commission
2. that experts with established reputation for professional integrity be appointed to the Planning Commission
3. that centrally sponsored schemes should be kept to the minimum
4. that States should not be involved in the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

78. Under which of the following regimes was the Inter-State Council (ISC) set up ?
(A) Congress Government in 1975
(B) Janata Government in 1978
(C) Janata Dal led Government in 1990
(D) United Front Government in 1996
Ans : (C)

79. Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create—
(A) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(B) 16 States and 5 Union Territories
(C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(D) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans : (C)

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61. In the US House of Representatives, the second reading of a Bill is undertaken in which one of the following Committees ?
(A) Select Committee
(B) Standing Committee
(C) Conference Committee
(D) Committee of the Whole House
Ans : (B)

62. When the Senate of the United States sits for a trial for impeachment of the US President, the House is presided over by the—
(A) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) President of the House
(C) Vice-President of the United States
(D) Senator representing the largest province of the United States
Ans : (A)

63. In several States of the US, the Jim Crow Legislation was responsible for—
(A) segregation of different communities
(B) reparations for previously segregated communities
(C) common schools for blacks and whites
(D) ban of civil rights movement
Ans : (C)

64. The final outcome of the French presidential election is on the completion of (run of election) second ballot among—
(A) all the candidates
(B) top two candidates
(C) top three candidates
(D) top four candidates
Ans : (B)

65. Consider the following statements—
The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless :
1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a 7 days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1
4th of the total number of members of that House
2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2 3rd of the total membership of that House
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

66. During the cultural revolution in China, public security organs known as workers provost corps were created for which of the following ?
1. Dealing with counter-revolutionary activities
2. Keeping surveillance over the activities of the Red Guard
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

67. The National Assembly of South Africa, by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of at least two-thirds of its members, can remove the President from the office on which of the following grounds ?
1. Serious violation of the Constitution or the Law
2. Serious misconduct
3. Moral corruption
4. Inability to perform the functions of the office
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following are included in the Right to Privacy under the Constitution of South Africa ?
Right not to have :
1. person or home searched
2. property searched
3. possession seized
4. privacy of their communication infringed
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (D)

69. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions prepared the groundwork for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed classes in India ?
(A) Southborough Committee
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Nehru Committee
(D) Lothian Committee
Ans : (B)

70. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha—
1. The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1919, when in pursuance to the Government of India Act, 1919, a second chamber known as the Council of States was created.
2. The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest that Parliament may make laws with respect to a matter in the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

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51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of ‘judicial review’, which means the power to—
(A) review the judgements of State High Courts
(B) review the functioning of the Council of Ministers
(C) advise the President of India
(D) decide the Constitutionality of an Act (or part thereof) passed by the Legislature
Ans : (D)

52. Consider the following statements—
The Supreme Court judgement in S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to mean that the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or the Chief Minister
1. at his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister in the Assembly.
2. when the Legislative Assembly has expressed its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.
3. when a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the Assembly.
4. when a censure motion against the Council of Minister has been rejected in the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following best perform the function of interest articulation in a political system ?
1. Trade unions and ethnic associations
2. Organizations of businessmen and civic groups
3. Judiciary and law-making institutions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 only
Ans : (C)

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach and Theory)
(a) Structural-Functional approach
(b) Communication theory
(c) General System theory
(d) Rational Choice
List-II (Political Scientist associated with)
1. Davi Easton
2. Karl Deutsch
3. Antony Downs
4. Gabriel Almond
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (D)

55. According to Gabriel Almond, which of the following are the basic characteristics of a system ?
1. Comprehensiveness and interdependence
2. Interdependence and existence of boundaries
3. Existence of boundaries and allocation of values
4. Allocation of values and goal attainment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following was not identified by Almond as a stage of conversion process of a political system ?
(A) Interest articulation
(B) Interest aggregation
(C) Political recruitment
(D) Rule adjudication
Ans : (D)

57. Consider the following political system—
1. Czech Republic
2. Malaysia
3. South Africa
4. Sri Lanka
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above opting to a sustained competitive electoral democracy ?
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

58. Consider the following statements—
The classification of authoritarian systems made by Almond and Powell includes
1. radical and conservative totalitarian
2. pre-mobilized authoritarian and pre-mobilized democratic
3. conservative and modernizing authoritarian
4. secularized City-States and pyramidal systems
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)

59. Consider the following—
1. Timocracy and oligarchy
2. Democracy and tyranny
3. Republics and autocracy
4. Theocracy and polity
Which of the above are included in Plato’s classification of governments ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Institutions/Units of Government)
(a) Laender
(b) Procuratorates
(c) Privy Council
(d) Commissions de modernization
List-II (Countries associated)
1. France
2. China
3. Great Britain
4. German Federal Republic
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (D)

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41. Consider the following statements—
The New Social Movements
1. do not seek ‘total’ change
2. are not class-based
3. do not believe in direct action
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

42. Consider the following International Women’s Conferences—
1. Nairobi
2. Mexico
3. Copenhagen
4. Beijing
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above Conference ?
(A) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(B) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(D) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

43. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with the Trade Union Movement in India ?
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) K. R. Narayanan
(D) Zakir Hussain
Ans : (A)

44. Which one of the following political theorists finds the concept of ‘imagined community’ inadequate to describe nationalism in post-colonial societies ?
(A) Partha Chatterjee
(B) V. R. Mehta
(C) Hans Cohn
(D) Ernest Gellner
Ans : (A)

45. Consider the following events—
1. OPEC’s Oil Embargo
2. Accession of UK, Ireland and Denmark to the European Economic Community (EEC)
3. Demand for a New International Economic Order by developing countries in the General Assembly of the United Nations
4. Suez Crisis
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Ans : (C)

46. The key to Gramsci’s analysis of the failure of socialist revolution to take off in the West is the concept of—
(A) ideology
(B) intellectuals
(C) hegemony
(D) civil society
Ans : (C)

47. The zero-sum game as employed by the supporters of the game theory assumes that—
(A) the loss of one player is the gain of the other
(B) the loss of one player is the loss of the other as well
(C) the gain or the loss of one player has nothing to do with the gain or the loss of the other
(D) the gain of one player is the gain of the other player
Ans : (A)

48. Consider the following developments—
1. Outsourcing of services
2. Shrinking of geographical distance
3. Rise of ethnic identity
4. Emergence of regional associations
Which of the above developments are associated with globalization ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

49. The old institutional approach to the study of political and government systems lays emphasis on—
(A) they study of formal aspects of government and politics
(B) finding out principles underlying all political activites
(C) the search for regularities and for making generalizations
(D) transcendental ideals embodying different views of ‘what ought to be’
Ans : (A)

50. Which of the following statements regarding behavioural approach are correct ?
1. It is interdisciplinary in nature.
2. It is more descriptive and less empirical.
3. It is value neutral.
4. It puts emphasis on qualitative judgement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

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31. Consider the following—
1. Decentralization
2. Labour-intensive industry
3. Promotion of Indian languages vis-a-vis English
4. Opposition to caste system
Which of the above were the central tenets of Lohia-inspired socialism in India ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

32. Consider the following statements—
1. Truth is a subjective quality, available only to a few gifted people, whose will or spirit or personality is greater than that of the masses.
2. Non-violence is the law of our species as violence is the law of brute.
Which political ideologies are reflected in the statements 1 and 2 above respectively ?
(A) Marxism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(B) Syndicalism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(C) Fascism in 1 and Liberalism in 2
(D) Fascism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
Ans : (D)

33. Consider the following propositions—
1. Trusteeship implies making use of resources at one’s command for the welfare of all.
2. Nayee (Nai) Taleem (Basic Education) is integration of learning with work.
3. Satyagraha is holding on to truth even at one’s cost.
With which of the above propositions did Gandhi disagree ?
(A) None
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 only
(D) 3
Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas —C. F. Andrews
(B) The Gandhian Way —J. B. Kriplani
(C) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism —Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) Gandhi’s Political Philosophy —B. R. Nanda
Ans : (D)

35. Consider the following countries—
1. Sri Lanka
2. Malaysia
3. Australia
4. Canada
Which of the above countries has/have formally declared itself/themselves as multicultural ?
(A) 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Country)
(a) Egypt
(b) Nigeria
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Syria
List-II (Party)
1. National Democratic Party
2. People’s Democratic Party
3. United National Party
4. Baath Party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

37. Which one of the following was the first country-wide pressure group of the organized Indian working class ?
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Indian Mining Federation
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
Ans : (A)

38. With which one of the following is the expression ‘gift of grace’ associated ?
(A) Legal-rational authority
(B) Traditional authority
(C) Charismatic authority
(D) Autocratic authority
Ans : (C)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Exponent)
(a) Eva Balfour
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) A. G. Frank
(d) Samir Amin
List-II (Theory)
1. Stages of development
2. Centre-periphery theory
3. Environmental theory
4. Development of underdevelopment
5. Sustainable development
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 1 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 5
(C) 5 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 5
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is/are the major theme(s) of New International Economic Order (NIEO) ?
1. Self-reliance
2. Globalization and liberalization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

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21. Consider the following classics of Marxism—
1. The German Ideology (Marx and Engels)
2. The Paris Commune (Marx)
3. The Critique of the Gotha Programme (Marx)
4. State and Revolution (Lenin)
Which of the above are a strong endorsement of direct democracy ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

22. The concept of civil disobedience is not central in the thought of who of the following ?
(A) John Rawls
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Leo Tolstoy
(D) Michel Foucault
Ans : (A)

23. Which one of the following theories considers democracy not as a government of the people but as ‘the iron law of oligarchy’ ?
(A) The Pluralist
(B) The Marxist
(C) The Elitist
(D) The Idealist
Ans : (C)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Theories of Democracy)
(a) Elite theory
(b) Pluralist theory
(c) Radical theory
(d) Neo-Liberal theory
List-II (Champions)
1. C. B. Macpherson
2. Robert Nozick
3. Vilfredo Pareto
4. Robert Dahl
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)

25. Consider the following statements—
Liberal feminists advocate:
1. equality before the law for women
2. same rights for men and women
3. special representation for women in decision-making bodies
4. assault on patriarchy
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

26. The public can private spheres came to be strongly demarcated in which one of the following ideological orientations ?
(A) Fascism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Feminism
(D) Marxism
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following books makes value and meaning crucial determinants of human action ?
(A) Rousseau’s ‘Discourse on the Origin of Inequality
(B) Marx’s ‘On the Jewish Question’
(C) Weber’s ‘Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism’
(D) Paine’s ‘Rights of Man’
Ans : (C)

28. According to Lenin, what are the three sources of Marxism ?
(A) Russian anarchism, French socialism and British economy
(B) German philosophy, British political economy and French socialism
(C) French philosophy, British economy and German socialism
(D) Hegelian dialectics, Blanqui’s socialism and Ricardo’s political economy
Ans : (B)

29. In which one of the following texts is the concept of ‘dialectics’ examined ?
(A) Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism (Lenin)
(B) The Eighteenth Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte (Marx)
(C) Social Reform or Revolution (Luxemburg)
(D) For Marx (Althusser)
Ans : (A)

30. Consider the following concepts—
1. Epistemological break
2. Relative autonomy of the superstructure
3. Economy in the last instance
4. Paradigm shift Althusser is credited with which of the above concepts ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

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11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
(a) Natural Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Moral Right
(d) Cultural Right
1. Immanuel Kant
2. Jeremy Bentham
3. Will Kymlicka
4. H. L. A. Hart
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (A)

12. Which one of the following political philosophers is an advocate of positive liberty ?
(A) Isaiah Berlin
(B) Iris Marion Young
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) T. H. Green
Ans : (D)

13. Consider the following statements—
In his theory of justice, John Rawls :
1. reconciles a liberal conception of political obligation with a redistributive conception of social justice.
2. affirms the utilitarian principle for determining what is goot and desirable.
3. uses the instrument of the social contract to ensure fairness.
4. maintains that the concern for redistribution trumps individuals liberty.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

14. The New Right rejects the principle of social justice because it—
1. violates liberty
2. is against merit
3. is not conducive to efficiency
4. does not respect different wants and needs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

15. According to Rawls, which of the following sets of social primary goods is likely to be pursued by all human beings ?
(A) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, rights and liberties, and social bases of selfrespect
(B) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, healths and intelligence, and social bases of self-respect
(C) Rights and liberties, income and wealth, health and intelligence, and social bases of selfrespect
(D) Income and wealth, health and imagination, opportunities and powers, and social bases of self-respect
Ans : (A)

16. Public institutions may not cope with the expansion of democratic participation leading to political decay. Which one of the following scholars draws attention to such a consequence ?
(A) Rajni Kothari
(B) Samuel Huntington
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) David Held
Ans : (B)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Idea of Justice)
(a) Treating likes alike
(b) Fairness
(c) Net aggregate satisfaction
(d) Interest of the stronger
List-II (Thinker)
1. Rawls
2. Aristotle
3. Thrasymachus
4. Bentham
5. Nozick
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 5 3
(B) 2 1 3 5
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept of Civil Society)
(a) Civil society as the arena of cultural politics
(b) Civil society as the arena of civic associations
(c) Civil society as the zone between family and State
(d) Civil society as the space for the emergence of public opinion independent of the State and the Church
List-II (Thinker)
1. Hegal
2. de Tocqueville
3. Gramsci
4. Jurgen
5. Habermas
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)

19. Consider the following statements—
1. In the Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individuals as well as the society.
2. The Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle againstColonial Raj in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

20. Who among the following argues that fault lines of civilizations are the breeding grounds of conflict in 21st Century ?
(A) Francis Fukuyama
(B) Samuel Huntington
(C) Henry Kissinger
(D) Sanjay Subramaniam
Ans : (B)

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1. Which one of the following thinkers proposed the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of scientific truth ?
(A) Levi-Strauss
(B) Max Weber
(C) Karl Popper
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (C)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
(a) The State comes into existence for the bare needs of life and continue to exist for the sake of good life.
(b) Rights are the conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.
(c) Greatest happiness of the greatest number.
(d) From each according to his ability to each according to his needs.
1. Harold Laski
2. Bentham
3. Aristotle
4. Marx
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach)
(a) New Institutionalism
(b) Neo-Liberalism
(c) Communitarianism
(d) Behaviouralism
List-II (Scholar)
1. Michael Walzer
2. David Apter
3. Milton Friendman
4. Douglass North
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (A)

4. For Aristotle, the State should be governed by a political statesman having which one of the following virtues ?
(A) Reason
(B) Knowledge
(C) Prudence
(D) Wealth
Ans : (C)

5. Which one of the following is correct with regard to all theorists of social contract ?
(A) Erasing the distinction between law and morality
(B) The principle of separation of powers
(C) Formation of public authority with social consent
(D) Belief in innate rights
Ans : (C)

6. With regard to conservatism, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Society is an achievement, which despite all its imperfections, is preferable to the state of nature.
2. Individuals are a product of historical and social conditions.
3. Customs and values play an important role in defining the identity of the individual.
4. Power should be vested in the office rather than the individuals holding the office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

7. Who among the following has coined the term power elite ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) C. Wright Mills
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. Pareto
Ans : (B)

8. Antonio Gramsci establishes a strong link between which one of the following four sets of concepts ?
(A) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Religion
(B) Ideology—Leadership—War of Manoeuvre—Domination
(C) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Passive Revolution
(D) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Intellectuals
Ans : (D)

9. Which one of the following is suggested by the concept of universal citizenship ?
(A) Identical rights for all persons
(B) Identical rights for all citizens
(C) Common rights for all with some special rights for minorities
(D) Single citizenship in the world
Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to ethnicity and nationalism ?
(A) Both trace common bonds across their members
(B) Both distinguish between we and they
(C) There is unanimity among scholars today that both are imagined relations
(D) While nationalism tends towards Nation-State, ethnicity seeks the recognition of its distinct identity
Ans : (C)

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OSSSC Supervisor Recruitment 2017 Online Application Form 456 Posts

Mahatma Gandhi Quiz Questions and Answers | Gandhi GK

  1. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was born on—
    (A) October 5, 1896 (B) October 3, 1840
    (C) October 2, 1869 (D) October 10, 1880 (Ans : C)2. At which place was Gandhiji born?
    (A) Porbandar (B) Rajkot
    (C) Wardha (D) Junagadh (Ans : A)

    3. Which of the following plays left a deep impression on Gandhiji?
    (A) Harishchandra (B) Shravana Kumar
    (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Shakuntala (Ans : C)

    4. Who of the following desired to convert Gandhiji to Christianity in South Africa?
    (A) A. W. Baker (B) Mrs. MacDonald
    (C) William Godfrey (D) Spencer Walton (Ans :A)

    5. Who of the following satyagrahis succumbed to jail hardships during the satyagraha movement launched by Gandhiji in South Africa?
    (A) Harbat Singh (B) Villiamma
    (C) Nagappan (D) All of them (Ans :D)

    6. What was Gandhiji’s age when he got married to Kasturbai?
    (A) 19 years (B) 15 years
    (c)12 years (D) 13 years (Ans :D)

    7. About how old was Gandhiji when he reached London to become a barrister?
    (A) 20 years (B) 19 years
    (C) 21 years (D) 18 years (Ans :B)

    8. Devdas was Gandhiji’s
    (A) Only child (B) Second child
    (C) Eldest child (D) Youngest child (Ans :D)

    9. At which place was the first permit office opened on July 1, 1907 for the registration of Indians
    under the Registration Act?
    (A) Pretoria (B) Johhanesburg
    (C) Petersburg (D) Volksrust (Ans :A)

    10. Searle’s Supreme Court judgement which caused great resentment among Indians, leading to mass
    protests, related to—
    (A) Registration of Indians (B) Strike by Indian coal miners
    (C) Invalidation of Indian marriages (D) None of the above (Ans :C)

    11. Gandhiji, the hero of the satyagraha struggle of the Indians in South Africa, landed in Bombay on—
    (A) January 9, 1915 (B) January 26, 1915
    (C) February 10, 1915 (D) February 20, 1915 (Ans :A)

    12. Who advised Gandhiji to remain as an observer and student in the country for a year before taking part in Indian Politics?
    (A) B. G. Tilak (B) G. K. Gokhale
    (C) Anne Besant (D) Rabindranath Tagore (Ans :C)

    13. Identify the place from where Gandhiji started his recruiting campaign for the War on behalf of the British Government.
    (A) Surat (B) Ahmedabad
    (C) Kheda (D) Rajkot (Ans :C)

    14. In which South African unit had most of the India emigrants taken up abode?
    (A) Johannesburg (B) Natal
    (C) Maritzberg (D) Durban (Ans :B)

    15. At which place was Gandhiji arrested for the first time by the British Government for sedition?
    (A) Bombay (B) Pune
    (C) Calcutta (D) Ahmedabad (Ans :D)

    16. When was the Gandhi – Irwin Pact signed?
    (A) March 1, 1932 (B) March 5, 1931
    (C) March 10, 1935 (D) March 7, 1937 (Ans :B)

    17. On being arrested for his “Quit India” programme, where was Gandhiji detained?
    (A) Yeravda Jail (B) Byculla Prison
    (C) Agakhan Palace Jail (D) Ahmedabad Prison (Ans :D)

    18. In connection with the inauguration of the so-called Rowlatt satyagraha, Gandhiji started a Satyagraha Sabha in—
    (A) Ahmedabad (B) Bombay
    (C) Wardha (D) Rajkot (Ans : B)

    19. What is the name of the building which served as Gandhi’s residence in Mumbai from 1917-1934?
    (A) Birla House (B) Bajaj House
    (C) Mani Bhavan (D) Congress House (Ans : C)

    20. The book “Unto This Last” greatly captivated and transformed Gandhiji. So much so that he translated it into Gujarati. Who was its author?
    (A) Ruskin Bond (B) John Ruskin
    (C) Leo Tolstoy (D) Louis Fisher (Ans : B)

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UPPRPB Recruitment 2017-2018 Online Application Form 3789 Posts

  1. Which of the following Constitutional (Amendment) Acts provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States?
    (A) Fourth (Amendment) Act (B) Seventh (Amendment) Act
    (C) Eleventh (Amendment) Act (D) Twenty Fourth Amendment) Act (Ans : B)57. The basic – structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that–
    (A) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away.
    (B) The Constitution can not be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Art-368
    (C) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the same time it represents real spirit of Constitution
    (D) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they can not be amended (Ans : D)

    58. Who among the following has termed Indian Federalism as “Cooperative Federalism” ?
    (A) K. C. Wheare (B) Morris Jones (C) Granville Austin (D) Jennings (Ans : C)

    59. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct ?
    (A) ‘Exit-Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchiese
    (B) ‘Exit-Poll’ and ‘Opinion-Poll’ are one and the same
    (C) ‘Exit-Poll’ is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted
    (D) ‘Exit-Poll’ is an administrative device made by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation (Ans : A)

    60. Which of the following models of bureaucracy exists in India today?
    (A) Committed bureaucracy (B) Fully politicised bureaucracy
    (C) Semi-politicised bureaucracy (D) Depoliticised bureaucracy (Ans : C)

    61. According to the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, the District collector should be–
    (A) kept out of the Zila Parishad (B) a non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
    (C) a member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote (D) the Chairman of the Zila Parishad (Ans :D)

    62. Which of the following is not a source of revenue for the village panchayats ?
    (A) Tax on agricultural income (B) Tax on property, animals and vehicles
    (C) Voluntary donations (D) Grants from the State Government (Ans : A)

    63. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first (in the order) by–
    (A) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh (B) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
    (C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh (D) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh (Ans : C)

    64. In India, Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendation of–
    (A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India (B) Gorwala Reprot
    (C) Kripalani Committee (D) Santhanam Committee (Ans : D)

    65. Which one of the following High Courts had the Territorial-Jurisdiction over’ Andaman and Nicobar’ Islands?
    (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Calcutta (C) Madras (D) Orissa (Ans : B)

    66. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to–
    (A) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
    (B) prepare the Annual Budget
    (C) advice the President on financial matters
    (D) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments (Ans : A)

    67. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with–
    (A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament (C) President of India (D) National Development Council (Ans : B)

    68. Which of the following statements is / are correct with regard to Indian Audit?
    (A) Indian Audit is primarily a legality audit (B) Indian Audit is governed not by law but by an executive order
    (C) The Audit is mostly limited to the expenditure side only (D) All the three above (Ans : D)

    69. Which one of the following recommended the creation of the office of ‘Lokpal’ ?
    (A) National Police Commission (B) States Reorganization Commission
    (C) Administrative Reform Commission (D) Inter-State Council (Ans : C)

    70. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the–
    (A) U.N. General Assembly only (B) U.N. Security Council only
    (C) U.N. General Assembly and U.N. Security Council both (D) Economic and Social Council (Ans :C)

    71. ‘Optional Clause’ which defines the compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice, originates from which one of the following Articles of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?
    (A) Article – 34 (B) Article – 35 (C) Article – 36 (D) Article – 40 (Ans : C)

    72. The historic Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh in which the two countries agreed to transfer the enclaves to each others sovereignty was concluded in–
    (A) 1972 (B) 1973 (C) 1974 (D) 1975 (Ans : C)

    73. The number of ‘SAARC’ (South Asian Association of Regional Co-operation) countries is–
    (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 (Ans : B)

    74. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble of Constitution of India by–
    (A) 41st Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment
    (C) 44th Amendment (D) 46th Amendment (Ans : B)

    75. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of Education?
    (A) Article 349 (B) Article 350 (C) Article 350-A (D) Article 351 (Ans : C)

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Recruitment in Uttar Pradesh Police for 2351 Posts | Government Job Exam

26. How many Nations had signed the Charter of United Nations on 26th June, 1945 ?
(A) 64 (B) 61 (C) 52 (D) 51 (Ans : D)

27. How many women members were there in the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 15 (Ans : D)

28. To whom among the following did Buddha preach his last sermon?
(A) Subhadda (B) Anand (C) Yash (D) Gautami (Ans : A)

29. From which site of prehistoric age, evidence of cremating pet-dog with man has been found?
(A) Koldihawa (B) Panchoh (C) Burzhome (D) Gufkaral (Ans : C)

30. Which of the Indian States had diarchy system of government at the time of Alexander’s invasion?
(A) Patal (B) Fegela (C) Gandaris (D) Siboi (Ans : A)

31. Whose relics are preserved in the Second Stupa at Sanchi ?
(A) Missionaries of Ashokan age (B) Lord Buddha
(C) Sariputra (D) Mahamodglyeyan (Ans : A)

32. Which temple of North India has its Shikhar (spire) in Dravid style?
(A) Bhitargaon (B) Deogarh (C) Sas-Bahu temple (D) Teli temple at Gwalior (Ans : D)

33. The first excavated Indus site after independence of India is–
(A) Ropar (B) Kalibangan (C) Banavali (D) Lothal (Ans : A)

34. Which is the port city of Indus Valley culture?
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Harappa (C) Kalibanga (D) Lothal (Ans : D)

35. How many slokas are present in Rajtarangini of Kalhana ?
(A) Eight thousand (B) Nine thousand (C) Ten thousand (D) Eleven thousand (Ans : A)

36. Which of the following tribes does not belong to the Panchjana of Rigveda ?
(A) Yadu (B) Puru (C) Turvasa (D) Kikat (Ans : D)

37. Which of the following inscriptions mentions Vedic Gods?
(A) Mansehra (B) Shahbajgarhi (C) Boghazkoi (D) Junagarh (Ans : C)

38. King Kharvela of Kalinga belonged to which dynasty ?
(A) Chedi (B) Kadamba (C) Haryanka (D) Kalinga (Ans : A)

39. Which one of the following is the name of the Book written by Magasthnase ?
(A) Deep Vansh (B) Kapur Manjan (C) Geography (D) Indica (Ans : D)

40. Who is regarded as the father of Indian pre-history?
(A) Cunnigham (B) Bruce Froot (C) Marshall (D) William King (Ans : B)

41. Who among the following called himself ‘The Parrot of India’ ?
(A) Malik Muhammad Jaisi (B) Raskhan (C) Amir Khusrau (D) Amir Hasan (Ans : C)

42. Who among the following built the ‘Qutub Minar’ ?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak (B) Iltutmish (C) Firozshah Tughlaq (D) All the above (Ans : D)

43. At which of the following places Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the tricolour in 1930 ?
(A) Allahabad (B) Delhi (C) Lahore (D) Lucknow (Ans : C)

44. Who was the great force behind the foundation of the first Indian Women’s University in Bombay in 1906?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) D. K. Karve (C) S. S. Bangali (D) V. M. Malabari (Ans : B)

45. The largest ocean of the world is–
(A) Arctic Ocean (B) Indian Ocean (C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Pacific Ocean (Ans : D)

46. The largest Mica producing State in India is–
(A) Jharkhand (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan (Ans : A)

47. Which one of the following is the longest river in India?
(A) Godavari (B) Narmada (C) Krishna (D) Yamuna (Ans : A)

48. Which one of the following country has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forests?
(A) China (B) Australia (C) India (D) United Kingdom (Ans : C)

49. Chandra Prabha National Park is located in–
(A) Varanasi (B) Kanpur (C) Jaunpur (D) Saharanpur (Ans : A)

50. Disaster Management Act was enacted in India, in the year–
(A) 2001 (B) 2003 (C) 2005 (D) 2012 (Ans : C)

51. The National Capital Region Planning Board was set up in India in the year–
(A) 1980 (B) 1982 (C) 1985 (D) 1995 (Ans : C)

52. Which of the following tribes belongs to Nilgiri hills ?
(A) Maria (B) Asur (C) Badga (D) Saharia (Ans : C)

53. The Patkai hills separate India from–
(A) China (B) Myanmar (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh (Ans : B)

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-
List-I (Industry) 
(a) Sugar (b) Paper (c) Cement (d) Iron & Steel
List-II (Place) 
1. Dalmia Dadari 2. Dhampur 3. Chandra pur 4. Bokaro
Codes : 
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 2 3 4(Ans : B)

55. As per Census 2011 of India, which of the following States has lowest per cent of urban population?
(A) Tripura (B) Sikkim (C) Bihar (D) Himachal Pradesh (Ans : D)

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Bank of Baroda Recruitment 2017 – Apply for 566 Sweeper & Peon Posts Exam

1. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute is located at–
(A) Goa (B) Kochi (C) Vishakhapatnam (D) Puri (Ans : B)

2. The Coromandal Coast is located in the State of–
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Gujarat (Ans : C)

3. Arrange the following events in chronological order, using the codes given below–
1. Abolition of Jazia 2. Abolition of Pilgrimage Tax
3. Construction of Ibadat Khana 4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi’
Codes : 
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2 (Ans : B)

4. Which of the following emperors was known as ‘Shah-i-Bekhabar’?
(A) Humayun (B) Jahangir (C) Bahadurshah-I (D) Farrukhsiyar (Ans : C)

5. Which of the following emperors had the highest number of Hindu generals in the army?
(A) Babar (B) Akbar (C) Jahangir (D) Aurangzeb (Ans : D)

6. ‘Rajm Nama’ is the Persian translation of–
(A) Arthashastra (B) Ramayan (C) Mahabharata (D) Upanishada (Ans : C)

7. Maluk Das was a saint-poet residing at–
(A) Agra (B) Ayodhya (C) Kashi (D) Kara (Ans : D)

8. Which of the following Rajput houses was the first to establish matrimonial relation with emperor Akbar?
(A) Rathore (B) Kachwaha (C) Chauhan (D) Sisodiya (Ans : B)

9. Musical instrument ‘Sitar’ was invented by–
(A) Amir Khusro (B) Ramdas (C) Tansen (D) Haridas (Ans : A)

10. Which Sufi Saint remarked ‘Hanooj Dilli Dur Ast’ (Delhi is still far away) ?
(A) Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Delhi (B) Nizamuddin Aulia
(C) Shaikh Bakhtiyar Kaki (D) Baba Farid (Ans : B)

11. ‘Bijak’ is a collection of the sayings of–
(A) Baba Farid (B) Ramanand (C) Guru Nanak (D) Kabir (Ans : D)

12. Panchayati Raj is a system of–
(A) Local government (B) Local administration
(C) Local self-government (D) Rural local self government (Ans : D)

13. Which one of the following is a member of ‘ASEAN’ ? (Association of South East Asian Nations) formed in 1967?
(A) Thailand (B) Australia (C) New Zealand (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

14. The Indian foreign policy was formulated by–
(A) Mrs. Indira Gandhi (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Morarji Desai (D) Jawaharlal Nehru (Ans : D)

15. After K-2, which of the following is second highest mountain peak in India?
(A) Kamet (B) Nandadevi (C) Kanchenjunga (D) Shudu Thempa (Ans : C)

16. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(States) – (Major Hydel-Power Station) 
(A) Gujarat – Tawa
(B) Rajasthan – Jawhar Sagar
(C) West Bengal – Panchet Hill
(D) Madhya Pradesh – Khopoli (Ans : D)

17. Which one of the following tribes belongs to Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand ?
(A) Itnar (B) Tharu (C) Bhil (D) Munda (Ans : B)

18. Badrinath is located in–
(A) Kumaun Himalaya (B) Central Himalaya (C) Himadri (D) Trans-Himalaya (Ans : A)

19. Who among the following pre-pared a scientific classification of forests?
(A) H. G. Champion (B) K. V. Sundaram (C) B. L. Sukhwal (D) L. D. Stamp (Ans : A)

20. The eastern most place of India is located in the State of–
(A) Mizoram (B) Meghalaya (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Nagaland (Ans : C)

21. ‘Kevti’ Waterfall is located in which of the following districts?
(A) Rewa (B) Rohtas (C) Ranchi (D) Jabalpur (Ans : A)

22. Largest bauxite producing State in India (2014) is–
(A) Jharkhand (B) Rajasthan (C) Odisha (D) Tamil Nadu (Ans : C)

23. The ‘Wage good strategy’ of development was formulated by–
(A) Amartya Sen (B) C. Vakil (C) P. C. Mahalanobis (D) J. Bhagwati (Ans : B)

24. Who among the following represented India in the International Yoga Day Celebrations held in New York on 21st June, 2015 ?
(A) Uma Bharati (B) Sumitra Mahajan (C) Sushma Swaraj (D) Vasundhara Raje (Ans : C)

25. Consider the statements–
Assertion (A) : The State Election Commission is appointed by the State Government.
Reason (R) : It has the responsibility of holding elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below–
Codes : 
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (Ans : D)

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OSSSC Recruitment 2017 Apply for 736 Village Agricultural Workers Exam

The oldest English daily at present in our country is :
(A) Statesman (B) Indian Express
(C) The Hindu (D) Times of India

2. ’Subbing’ relates to :
(A) Editing a news (B) Correction
(C) rewriting (D) All of the above

3. Narrow casting is :
(A) Local Programmes on TV (B) Small Cubicle
(D) Short Headlines (E) News on phone service

4. Brand ambassador for ‘save the girl child campaign’ is :
(A) Sania Mirza (B) Sunita Williams
(C) Rani Mukharjee (D) Aishwarya Rai

5. Under which section of IPC the ‘defamation’ has been defined?
(A) 449 (B) 420
(C) 500 (D) 151

6. A ‘wire service’ is :
(A) A news agency (B) Wire providing live radio programmes
(C) Another name of cable TV network (D) None of the above

7. The puppetry is :
(A) A form of traditional media (B) An art form
(C) performed to tell stories (D) A form of entertainment

8. The only actress to bag the Filmfare Award for the best villain is :
(A) Rekha in ’Khiladiyon Ke Khiladi’ (B) Kajol in ’Gupt ’
(C) Nadira in ‘Dil Apna Preet Parayi (D) None of these

9. Construction of a park by a Corporate is:
(A) Social work (B) Public relation
(C) Advertisement (D) None of these

10. How many sequential frames are there in a two-dimensional animation ?
(A) 22 in a second (B) 24 in a second
(C) 36 in a second (D) 10 in a second

11. Proposed Broadcating bill is supposed to put restrictions on :
(A) Private TV Channels (B) Private Radio Channels
(C) Both (D) None of the above

12. Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) is situated in :
(A) Pune (B) Delhi
(C) Nasik (D) Hyderabad

13. The much-discussed media event ‘wardrobe malfunctioning’ was related to :
(A) A beauty contest (B) Slipping of a model’s outfit during a fashion show
(C) Kissing episode of Rakhi Sawant (D) None of these

14. What is ‘sitcom’?
(A) City combination (B) Situational Comedy
(C) A private TV channel (D) None of these

15. Full form of ‘Fax’ is :
(A) Fast Arriving Xerox (B) Facsimile
(C) First Action Xerox (D) None of these

16. Google is :
(A) A search engine (B) A type of cricket ball
(C) An English newspaper (D) None of these

17. Who raised the issue of pesticides in the bottled soft drinks?
(A) Sunita Narayan (B) Medha Patker
(C) Arundhati Roy (D) Anita Narayan

18. Subhash Chandra is the Chief Executive Officer of :
(A) Zee TV (B) Sony Entertainment
(C) Star Plus (D) Setmax

19. Author of the well-known book ‘A Suitable Boy’ is :
(A) Vikram Seth (B) Pritish Nandi
(C) Salman Rushdie (D) Arundhati Roy

20. The Voluntary organisation that raised the issue of pesticides in the soft drinks was :
(A) Centre for Science and Environment (B) Environment Action Group
(C) Concern for Environment (D) Forum for Science & Environment

21. Quiz master of the popular game-show ‘Kaun Banega Crorepati’ was :
(A) Neil O’ Brien (B) Derek O’ Brien
(C) Siddharth Basu (D) Siddharth Sharma

22. Which chocolate brand had the controversy of worms in the chocolate?
(A) Nestle (B) Cadbury
(C) Parle (D) AMUL

23. Present editor of India Today is :
(A) Aroon Purie (B) Vinod Mehta
(C) Vineet Jain (D) Prabhu Chawla

24. Name of the monthly magazine of the Ministry of Rural Development is :
(A) Kurukshetra (B) Krishi
(C) Kheti (D) Gramin Sandesh

25. Who is the author of the well-known novel ‘Ek Chadar Maili Si :
(A) Rajindar Singh Bedi (B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Ismat Chughtai (D) Sadat Hasan Manto

Answers :
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A)

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Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam – UPJN Recruitment 2017 – 383 Routine Clerk & Steno Vacancies Exam

  1. Which of the following is not a part of India’s Money Market ?
    (A) Bill Markets (B) Call Money Market (C) Banks (D) Indian Gold Council (Ans :D)

    2. Which of the following States introduced a high-tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
    (A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Delhi (D) Karnataka (Ans : D)

    3. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
    (A) Republican (B) Democratic (C) Labour
    (D) American National Congress (Ans : B)

    4. Which of the following State Governments had announced that it would provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries?
    (A) Punjab (B) Karna taka (C) Bihar
    (D) Uttar Pradesh (Ans : C)

    5. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The Exile” ?
    (A) B. G. Verghese (B) Philip Roth (C) Aravind Adiga
    (D) Navtej Saran (Ans : D)

    6. Which of the following is not a fertilizer product ?
    (A) Urea (B) Murate of Potash (C) Di Ammonium Phosphate
    (D) Calcium Carbonate (Ans : D)

    7. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
    (A) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (B) Navodaya Vidyalay (C) Ultra Mega Power Project
    (D) None of ‘these (Ans : D)

    8. The Government of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal?
    (A) Wheat (B) Paddy (C) Sugarcane
    (D) Cotton (Ans : B)

    9. Which of the following services is not provided by the post offices in India?
    (A) Savings Bank Scheme (B) Retailing of Mutual Funds (C) Sale of Stamp Papers (Judicial)
    (D) Issuance of Demand Drafts (Ans : B)

    10. Which of the following diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
    (A) Cholera (B) Tuberculosis (C) AIDS
    (D) Polio (Ans : A)

    11. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The Namesake” ?
    (A) Vikram Seth (B) V. S. Naipaul (C) Arun Bhagat
    (D) Jhumpa Lahiri (Ans : D)

    12. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in–
    (A) Literary work (B) Social service (C) Coaching in sports
    (D) Journalism (Ans : C)

    13. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in–
    (A) Port Blair (B) Hassan (C) Tirupati
    (D) Sriharikota (Ans : D)

    14. Besides USA, India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as “Cooperation Agreement for Peaceful Uses, of Nuclear Energy” ?
    (A) Italy (B) Germany (C) France
    (D) Canada (Ans : C)

    15. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of–
    (A) Badminton (B) Football (C) Hockey
    (D) Golf (Ans : B)

    16. World Ozone Day is observed on–
    (A) 16th September (B) 16th October (C) 16th November
    (D) 26th September (Ans : A)

    17. Which of the following is not a Government-sponsored organisation?
    (A) Small Industries Development Bank of India (B) NABARD
    (C) National Housing Bank (D) ICICI Bank
    (Ans : D)

    18. Who amongst the following is the author of the novel “The White Tiger” ?
    (A) Jhumpa Lahiri (B) Steve Waugh (C) Aravind Adiga
    (D) Paul Krugman (Ans : C)

    19. Which of the following is the correct description of the Capital Market? Capital Market comprises
    (A) Stock Markets and Bond Markets (B) Banks and Insurance Companies
    (C) RBI and Nationalised Banks (D) Stock Markets and Banks
    (Ans : A)

    20. Which of the following organisations has provided a USS 150 million loan to overhaul the Khadi and Village Industry in India?
    (A) World Bank (B) International Monetary Fund (C) Asian Development Bank
    (D) European Union (Ans : C)

    21. Which of the following countries is not the member of IBSA ?
    (A) India (B) Bangladesh (C) South Africa
    (D) Brazil (Ans : B)

    22. Which of the followings countries is not the member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) ?
    (A) Russia (B) USA (C) France
    (D) Iran (Ans : D)

    23. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Lawn Tennis?
    (A) Double Fault (B) Half Nelson (C) Cox
    (D) Crease (Ans : A)

    24. Who amongst the following was the first Prime Minister of Nepal after it had got the status of the democratic republic nation?
    (A) Ram Baran Yadav (B) Subhash Nembang
    (C) G. P. Koirala (D) Pushpa Kamal Dahal (prachanda)
    (Ans : D)

    25. ‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of–
    (A) Cricket (B) Football (C) Lawn Tennis
    (D) Hockey (Ans : D)

    26. Which of the following organisations was specially established to operate in Gramin areas by design itself?
    (A) Commercial Banks (B) Central Financial Institutes (C) Private Banks
    (D) Regional Rural Banks (Ans : D)

    27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book (novel) “Infinite Jest?
    (A) Quentin Bryce (B) Aravind Adiga (C) Paul Newman
    (D) David Foster Wallace (Ans : D)

    28. India has purchased Harpoon II Missiles from which of the following countries?
    (A) Italy (B) China (C) France
    (D) USA (Ans : D)

    29. Which of the following is not one of the Millennium Goals set by U.N.O. ?
    (A) Achieve Universal Primary Education (B) Improve Computer Literacy
    (C) Combat HIV / AIDS (D) Environmental sustainability (Ans : B)

    30. Which of the following States introduced “One Kg. Rice for Rupee One” scheme, the first of its kind in the country?
    (A) West Bengal (B) Odisha (C) Bihar
    (D) Tamil Nadu (Ans : D)

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Jharkhand Urja Vikas Nigam Limited – JUVNL Recruitment 2017 – 372 Accounts Officer, Junior Accounts Clerk/Bill Clerk & Office Assistant Vacancies Exam

Nagarjun Sagar Dam is situated in which State of India ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka (D) Orissa
Ans : (B)

2. The Himalayan Mountain Ranges are not a part of which of the following States ?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Sikkim (D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

3. Which of the following is the general direction of flow of summer monsoon in India ?
(A) From South to North
(B) From South-West to South-East
(C) From South-East to South-West
(D) From South-West to North-East
Ans : (D)

4. What is the sex ratio of India as per the provisional data of census of India 2011 from the following ?
(A) 935  (B) 940
(C) 945  (D) 950
Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following is the first National Park of India ?
(A) Kanha National Park (B) Dudhwa National Park
(C) Rajaji National Park (D) Corbett National Park
Ans : (D)

6. Alaska is a part of which State from the following ?
(A) Greenland (B) United States of America
(C) Canada (D) Russia
Ans : (B)

7. In which of the following continents the Andes Mountain Range is located ?
(A) Australia (B) Europe
(C) South America (D) North America
Ans : (C)

8. The Equator does not pass through which of the following countries ?
(A) Kenya  (B) Mexico
(C) Indonesia  (D) Brazil
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following cities is known as the ‘City of Canals’ ?
(A) Amsterdam (B) Rome
(C) Venice (D) Athens
Ans : (C)

10. Which one of the following Indian States does not share border with Bhutan ?
(A) Sikkim (B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

11. Which one among the following is incorrect statement about the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) It worked with the help of a large number of committees, the most important among them being the Drafting Committee
(B) Minority communities like Christians, Anglo-Indians and Parsis were adequately represented in the Assembly
(C) It was elected on the basis of universal adult franchise
(D) Its electoral process was based on the sixth schedule of the Act of 1935 which allowed for a restricted franchise based on tax, property and educational qualification
Ans : (C)

12. The party system is the part of which larger system among the following ?
(A) social system (B) Economic system
(C) Political system (D) International system
Ans : (C)

13. Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes against which of the following ?
(A) Gold (B) Foreign security
(C) Government of India security (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

14. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by which of the following ?
(A) President of India (B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (D) Ministry of Transport
Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is the period of 12th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 2007-2012 (B) 2012-2017
(C) 2010-2015 (D) 2006-2011
Ans : (B)

16. In India, National Income is computed by which of the following ?
(A) Planning Commission (B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Statistical Organisation (D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (C)

17. Who among the following is associated with ‘White Revolution ?
(A) P. J. Kurien (B) Verghese Kurien
(C) M. S. Swaminathan (D) M. S. Raghunathan
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following Banks is the Central Bank of India ?
(A) State Bank of India (B) Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India (D) Reserve Bank of India
Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following was the Speaker of first Lok Sabha ?
(A) G. V. Mavalankar (B) K. M. Munshi
(C) G. B. Pant (D) Acharya Kriplani
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking/enterprise ?
(A) N.T.P.C.  (B) S.A.I.L.
(C) B.H.E.L.  (D) T.I.S.C.O.
Ans : (D)

21. Where among the following is the biggest indoor stadium situated in M.P. ?
(A) Gwalior  (B) Indore
(C) Bhopal (D) Jabalpur
Ans : (C)

22. Subrato Cup is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Football (B) Cricket
(C) Chess (D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

23. Which Olympic Swimmer amongst the following has won 18 Gold medals in his career ?
(A) Michel Phelps (U.S.A.) (B) Florent Manaudov (France)
(C) Cullen Jones (U.S.A.) (D) Ian Thorpe (Australia)
Ans : (A)

24. Mary Kom is a recipient of–
(A) Bronze medal in 2012 Olympic (B) Arjun Award
(C) Padma Shree (D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

25. Who among the following is the Chairman of Madhya Pradesh Sports Council at present ?
(A) Kailash Vijay Vargiya (B) Shivraj Singh Chauhan
(C) Tukoji Rao Pawar (D) Vikram Varma
Ans : (C)

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